NR601 WEEK 8 FINAL EXAM COMPLETE REAL
PRACTICE QUESTIONS, ANSWERS AND
EXPLANATIONS BANK (100% PASS
GUARANTEED)
This high-yield practice question bank features actual exam-
style multiple-choice questions complete with correct
answers and bold italic rationales designed to maximize
scores on Stuvia and Docsity. It delivers absolute mastery
over key NR601 topics including geriatric assessments,
Beers Criteria, GOLD guidelines, JNC 8 hypertension targets,
and complex chronic disease management for aging families.
This comprehensive test-prep package serves as the ultimate
resource for students seeking a guaranteed pass and a
premium edge on their final exams.
1. A 72-year-old female presents for a routine wellness exam.
According to the AGS Beers Criteria, which of the following
medications should be avoided or used with extreme caution
due to an increased risk of falls and fractures?
A) Metformin
B) Atorvastatin
C) Amitriptyline
D) Lisinopril
• Correct Answer: C
, • Rationale: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant
(TCA) with highly sedative and anticholinergic
properties. The Beers Criteria strongly recommends
avoiding TCAs in older adults because they significantly
increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, sedation,
cognitive decline, and subsequent falls or fractures.
Metformin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril do not carry this
specific high-risk designation for falls.
2. An 81-year-old male is brought to the clinic by his
daughter, who reports he has become acutely confused,
agitated, and is seeing things that are not there over the past
48 hours. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic
step?
A) Order a brain MRI to rule out ischemic stroke
B) Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen for urinalysis and culture
C) Initiate low-dose risperidone for hallucinations
D) Administer a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: The acute onset of fluctuating confusion,
agitation, and visual hallucinations points strongly
toward delirium rather than dementia. In older adults,
acute delirium is frequently triggered by an underlying
systemic infection, with urinary tract infections (UTIs)
being among the most common. Evaluating for a UTI
must occur before initiating antipsychotic therapy or
ordering expensive, non-emergent neuroimaging.
,3. Which of the following physical changes is considered a
normal, physiological consequence of the intrinsic aging
process in the cardiovascular system?
A) Increased maximal heart rate during strenuous exercise
B) Decreased arterial wall stiffness and compliance
C) Increased left ventricular wall thickness
D) Decreased systemic vascular resistance
• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Normal cardiovascular aging involves a
progressive increase in left ventricular wall thickness
(hypertrophy) to compensate for increased arterial
stiffness and afterload. Maximal heart rate decreases
with age due to down-regulation of beta-adrenergic
receptors, and arterial walls become stiffer, which
increases systemic vascular resistance.
4. A 68-year-old female is diagnosed with postmenopausal
osteoporosis after a DXA scan reveals a T-score of -2.7 in her
lumbar spine. She has no history of esophageal disease.
Which of the following is the first-line pharmacological
choice?
A) Subcutaneous denosumab
B) Oral alendronate
C) Intravenous zoledronic acid
D) Oral raloxifene
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Oral bisphosphonates, such as alendronate,
are the established first-line therapy for
, postmenopausal osteoporosis due to their proven
efficacy in reducing both vertebral and hip fractures,
cost-effectiveness, and extensive long-term safety data.
Since she has no contraindications like esophageal
strictures or severe GERD, oral dosing is preferred over
injections.
5. A 76-year-old patient presents with new-onset urinary
incontinence. The clinician uses the "DIAPPERS" mnemonic
to screen for transient, reversible causes. What does the
letter "P" in this mnemonic represent?
A) Prostate hypertrophy and pelvic organ prolapse
B) Psychological disorders and pharmaceuticals
C) Physical restraints and pain
D) Progesterone deficiency and protein malnutrition
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: In the acronym DIAPPERS (used to remember
transient causes of urinary incontinence), the letters
stand for Delirium, Infection, Atrophic
urethritis/vaginitis, Pharmaceuticals, Psychological
disorders, Excess urine output, Restricted mobility, and
Stool impaction.
6. When managing hypertension in an 84-year-old patient
with an initial blood pressure of 162/88 mmHg, which
treatment principle aligns with geriatric consensus
guidelines?
A) Lower the blood pressure rapidly within 24 hours to prevent
PRACTICE QUESTIONS, ANSWERS AND
EXPLANATIONS BANK (100% PASS
GUARANTEED)
This high-yield practice question bank features actual exam-
style multiple-choice questions complete with correct
answers and bold italic rationales designed to maximize
scores on Stuvia and Docsity. It delivers absolute mastery
over key NR601 topics including geriatric assessments,
Beers Criteria, GOLD guidelines, JNC 8 hypertension targets,
and complex chronic disease management for aging families.
This comprehensive test-prep package serves as the ultimate
resource for students seeking a guaranteed pass and a
premium edge on their final exams.
1. A 72-year-old female presents for a routine wellness exam.
According to the AGS Beers Criteria, which of the following
medications should be avoided or used with extreme caution
due to an increased risk of falls and fractures?
A) Metformin
B) Atorvastatin
C) Amitriptyline
D) Lisinopril
• Correct Answer: C
, • Rationale: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant
(TCA) with highly sedative and anticholinergic
properties. The Beers Criteria strongly recommends
avoiding TCAs in older adults because they significantly
increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, sedation,
cognitive decline, and subsequent falls or fractures.
Metformin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril do not carry this
specific high-risk designation for falls.
2. An 81-year-old male is brought to the clinic by his
daughter, who reports he has become acutely confused,
agitated, and is seeing things that are not there over the past
48 hours. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic
step?
A) Order a brain MRI to rule out ischemic stroke
B) Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen for urinalysis and culture
C) Initiate low-dose risperidone for hallucinations
D) Administer a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: The acute onset of fluctuating confusion,
agitation, and visual hallucinations points strongly
toward delirium rather than dementia. In older adults,
acute delirium is frequently triggered by an underlying
systemic infection, with urinary tract infections (UTIs)
being among the most common. Evaluating for a UTI
must occur before initiating antipsychotic therapy or
ordering expensive, non-emergent neuroimaging.
,3. Which of the following physical changes is considered a
normal, physiological consequence of the intrinsic aging
process in the cardiovascular system?
A) Increased maximal heart rate during strenuous exercise
B) Decreased arterial wall stiffness and compliance
C) Increased left ventricular wall thickness
D) Decreased systemic vascular resistance
• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Normal cardiovascular aging involves a
progressive increase in left ventricular wall thickness
(hypertrophy) to compensate for increased arterial
stiffness and afterload. Maximal heart rate decreases
with age due to down-regulation of beta-adrenergic
receptors, and arterial walls become stiffer, which
increases systemic vascular resistance.
4. A 68-year-old female is diagnosed with postmenopausal
osteoporosis after a DXA scan reveals a T-score of -2.7 in her
lumbar spine. She has no history of esophageal disease.
Which of the following is the first-line pharmacological
choice?
A) Subcutaneous denosumab
B) Oral alendronate
C) Intravenous zoledronic acid
D) Oral raloxifene
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Oral bisphosphonates, such as alendronate,
are the established first-line therapy for
, postmenopausal osteoporosis due to their proven
efficacy in reducing both vertebral and hip fractures,
cost-effectiveness, and extensive long-term safety data.
Since she has no contraindications like esophageal
strictures or severe GERD, oral dosing is preferred over
injections.
5. A 76-year-old patient presents with new-onset urinary
incontinence. The clinician uses the "DIAPPERS" mnemonic
to screen for transient, reversible causes. What does the
letter "P" in this mnemonic represent?
A) Prostate hypertrophy and pelvic organ prolapse
B) Psychological disorders and pharmaceuticals
C) Physical restraints and pain
D) Progesterone deficiency and protein malnutrition
• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: In the acronym DIAPPERS (used to remember
transient causes of urinary incontinence), the letters
stand for Delirium, Infection, Atrophic
urethritis/vaginitis, Pharmaceuticals, Psychological
disorders, Excess urine output, Restricted mobility, and
Stool impaction.
6. When managing hypertension in an 84-year-old patient
with an initial blood pressure of 162/88 mmHg, which
treatment principle aligns with geriatric consensus
guidelines?
A) Lower the blood pressure rapidly within 24 hours to prevent
