NUR 2513 MATERNAL-CHILD NURSING:
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAMINATION STUDY
GUIDE | LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027 | ACTUAL EXAM
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | EXAM
REVIEW | 100% CORRECT ANSWERS | VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS
This comprehensive practice examination is designed for nursing
students preparing for the NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing course
final examination. The examination covers all essential domains
including foundations of maternal-child nursing, reproductive health
and family-centered care, normal and high-risk pregnancy, intrapartum
and postpartum care, newborn assessment and care, and pediatric
nursing principles. Questions reflect the depth and complexity expected
on the actual course examination, emphasizing clinical judgment,
prioritization, safety, and NCLEX-style application of knowledge. This
resource is intended to help candidates assess their readiness, identify
knowledge gaps, and strengthen their preparation for the certification
examination.
Table of Contents
1. Foundations of Maternal-Child Nursing and Family-Centered Care
2. Reproductive Health, Conception, and Fetal Development
3. Prenatal Care and Assessment
4. Complications of Pregnancy
5. Intrapartum Care and Fetal Monitoring
6. Postpartum Care and Complications
, 7. Newborn Assessment and Care
8. High-Risk Newborn and Neonatal Complications
9. Pediatric Nursing Principles and Growth & Development
10. Common Pediatric Conditions and Disorders
1. A nurse is providing education to a group of pregnant
women about fetal development. At which gestational age
does the fetus typically reach a viable age with a reasonable
chance of survival outside the uterus?
A) 20 weeks
B) 22 weeks
C) 24 weeks
D) 28 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fetal viability is generally considered to begin at
approximately 24 weeks of gestation, when the fetus has developed
sufficient lung maturity and organ function to have a reasonable chance
of survival with intensive neonatal support. Twenty weeks (A) is the age
of viability in some settings but survival rates are extremely low.
Twenty-two weeks (B) has improved survival but is still considered pre-
viable by many standards. Twenty-eight weeks (D) has a high survival
rate but the threshold for viability is 24 weeks.
2. A client at 12 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the risk of
miscarriage. Which of the following statements by the nurse is
, most accurate?
A) "The risk of miscarriage decreases significantly after the first
trimester."
B) "The risk of miscarriage is highest in the third trimester."
C) "Miscarriage is rare before 20 weeks."
D) "Once you hear the fetal heartbeat, the risk of miscarriage is
zero."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The risk of miscarriage is highest in the first trimester and
decreases significantly after 12-14 weeks of gestation. Miscarriage (B) is
not highest in the third trimester; stillbirth is more common. Miscarriage
(C) is most common before 20 weeks. Hearing the fetal heartbeat (D)
reduces but does not eliminate the risk.
3. A nurse is reviewing the GTPAL system with a nursing student. A
client is G3 P1 (T0 P0 A1 L1). Which of the following correctly
describes this client's obstetric history?
A) 3 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 0 preterm births, 1 abortion, 1
living child
B) 3 pregnancies, 0 term births, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, 1
living child
C) 3 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 0 preterm births, 0 abortions, 1
living child
D) 3 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 0 abortions, 1
living child
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GTPAL stands for Gravida (number of pregnancies), Term
(births at 37 weeks or later), Preterm (births from 20-36.6 weeks),
, Abortions (pregnancy loss before 20 weeks), and Living children. G3 P1
(T0 P0 A1 L1) means 3 pregnancies, 0 term births, 0 preterm births, 1
abortion, and 1 living child. Option B is incorrect because the T is 0.
Option C is incorrect because the A is 1. Option D is incorrect because
the T is 0.
4. A client at 8 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting that is
worse in the morning. Which of the following recommendations
should the nurse make?
A) Eat a high-fat meal before bedtime
B) Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed in the morning
C) Drink a large glass of water with meals
D) Avoid eating anything until the nausea subsides
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eating dry crackers or toast before getting out of bed in the
morning can help alleviate nausea by raising blood sugar and settling
the stomach. High-fat meals (A) can worsen nausea. Drinking large
amounts of water with meals (C) can increase feelings of fullness and
nausea. Avoiding food (D) can worsen nausea due to hypoglycemia.
5. A nurse is assessing a client at 16 weeks gestation. Which of the
following findings would be considered abnormal and should be
reported to the provider?
A) Fundal height at the umbilicus
B) Weight gain of 3 pounds since the last visit
C) Presence of linea nigra
D) Blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg is elevated and may
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAMINATION STUDY
GUIDE | LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027 | ACTUAL EXAM
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | EXAM
REVIEW | 100% CORRECT ANSWERS | VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS
This comprehensive practice examination is designed for nursing
students preparing for the NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing course
final examination. The examination covers all essential domains
including foundations of maternal-child nursing, reproductive health
and family-centered care, normal and high-risk pregnancy, intrapartum
and postpartum care, newborn assessment and care, and pediatric
nursing principles. Questions reflect the depth and complexity expected
on the actual course examination, emphasizing clinical judgment,
prioritization, safety, and NCLEX-style application of knowledge. This
resource is intended to help candidates assess their readiness, identify
knowledge gaps, and strengthen their preparation for the certification
examination.
Table of Contents
1. Foundations of Maternal-Child Nursing and Family-Centered Care
2. Reproductive Health, Conception, and Fetal Development
3. Prenatal Care and Assessment
4. Complications of Pregnancy
5. Intrapartum Care and Fetal Monitoring
6. Postpartum Care and Complications
, 7. Newborn Assessment and Care
8. High-Risk Newborn and Neonatal Complications
9. Pediatric Nursing Principles and Growth & Development
10. Common Pediatric Conditions and Disorders
1. A nurse is providing education to a group of pregnant
women about fetal development. At which gestational age
does the fetus typically reach a viable age with a reasonable
chance of survival outside the uterus?
A) 20 weeks
B) 22 weeks
C) 24 weeks
D) 28 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fetal viability is generally considered to begin at
approximately 24 weeks of gestation, when the fetus has developed
sufficient lung maturity and organ function to have a reasonable chance
of survival with intensive neonatal support. Twenty weeks (A) is the age
of viability in some settings but survival rates are extremely low.
Twenty-two weeks (B) has improved survival but is still considered pre-
viable by many standards. Twenty-eight weeks (D) has a high survival
rate but the threshold for viability is 24 weeks.
2. A client at 12 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the risk of
miscarriage. Which of the following statements by the nurse is
, most accurate?
A) "The risk of miscarriage decreases significantly after the first
trimester."
B) "The risk of miscarriage is highest in the third trimester."
C) "Miscarriage is rare before 20 weeks."
D) "Once you hear the fetal heartbeat, the risk of miscarriage is
zero."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The risk of miscarriage is highest in the first trimester and
decreases significantly after 12-14 weeks of gestation. Miscarriage (B) is
not highest in the third trimester; stillbirth is more common. Miscarriage
(C) is most common before 20 weeks. Hearing the fetal heartbeat (D)
reduces but does not eliminate the risk.
3. A nurse is reviewing the GTPAL system with a nursing student. A
client is G3 P1 (T0 P0 A1 L1). Which of the following correctly
describes this client's obstetric history?
A) 3 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 0 preterm births, 1 abortion, 1
living child
B) 3 pregnancies, 0 term births, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, 1
living child
C) 3 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 0 preterm births, 0 abortions, 1
living child
D) 3 pregnancies, 1 term birth, 1 preterm birth, 0 abortions, 1
living child
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GTPAL stands for Gravida (number of pregnancies), Term
(births at 37 weeks or later), Preterm (births from 20-36.6 weeks),
, Abortions (pregnancy loss before 20 weeks), and Living children. G3 P1
(T0 P0 A1 L1) means 3 pregnancies, 0 term births, 0 preterm births, 1
abortion, and 1 living child. Option B is incorrect because the T is 0.
Option C is incorrect because the A is 1. Option D is incorrect because
the T is 0.
4. A client at 8 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting that is
worse in the morning. Which of the following recommendations
should the nurse make?
A) Eat a high-fat meal before bedtime
B) Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed in the morning
C) Drink a large glass of water with meals
D) Avoid eating anything until the nausea subsides
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eating dry crackers or toast before getting out of bed in the
morning can help alleviate nausea by raising blood sugar and settling
the stomach. High-fat meals (A) can worsen nausea. Drinking large
amounts of water with meals (C) can increase feelings of fullness and
nausea. Avoiding food (D) can worsen nausea due to hypoglycemia.
5. A nurse is assessing a client at 16 weeks gestation. Which of the
following findings would be considered abnormal and should be
reported to the provider?
A) Fundal height at the umbilicus
B) Weight gain of 3 pounds since the last visit
C) Presence of linea nigra
D) Blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg is elevated and may
