Guaranteed Pass Solutions 2026
Updated.
The final rule includes, among several other key elements, a list of three triggers (as described
in the SNPRM prior to the final rule) that determine the applicability of the rule.
Airport certificate holders that qualify under one or more of the following triggering criteria
(triggers) are required to develop and implement SMS: - Answer • Are classified as large,
medium or small hubs, based on passenger data extracted from the FAA Air Carrier Activity
Information System.
• Have a three-year rolling average of 100,000 or more total annual operations, meaning the
sum of all arrivals and departures.
• Serve any international operation other than general aviation
. At this writing, the most likely tenants subject to SMS regulation are - Answer Part 121
airlines
SMS builds safety capacity, but also improves - Answer engagement, reduces waste, helps
employee retention, and increases operational effectiveness among many other positive
outcomes.
Hazard - Answer "A condition that could foreseeably cause or
contribute to an aircraft accident as defined in Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations (49
CFR) part 830, § 830.2."
There are two primary types of risk: pure risk and
speculative risk - Answer Speculative risk is taken on voluntarily. In other words, the profit or
loss that may result from your conscious investment in a stock or bet on a horse is an example
of speculative risk. Pure risk conveys that only loss, not gain, is possible if the event occurs
Once risks are classified and assessed we must decide how best to treat the risk. As a general
overview, our options typically include the ability to - Answer - Avoid the risk (by changing our
work process or operations).
• Mitigate the risk (by reducing either the severity or likelihood, or both).
• Accept the risk (by acknowledging the risk and self-insuring for its potential impact).
• Transfer the risk (by outsourcing to a specialist, purchasing insurance, or by contract)
safety is - Answer "the state in which the possibility of harm to persons or of property damage
is reduced to, and maintained at or
,below, an acceptable level through a continuing process of hazard identification and safety risk
management"
Safety implies that we are actively engaged in: - Answer • Creating functional resilience.
• Practical assessment of risk and risk-informed decision-making.
• The ability to identify, capture and learn from performance deviations.
alternative definition of safety - Answer preventing harm by making risk-based
decisions supported by positive, embedded cultural values.
safety is never a stable state - Answer It is a dynamic trade-off as we negotiate changing risk
and hazards in an environment of competing goals.
The purpose of safety management and SMS - Answer to maintain operations within a safety
space (Figure 9), and even to expand the area of that space
as we learn.
Active failures - Answer actions or inactions, including errors and violations, that have an
immediate adverse
effect. They are generally viewed, with the benefit of hindsight, as unsafe acts. Active failures
are generally associated with front-line personnel (pilots, air traffic controllers,
aircraft mechanical engineers, etc.) and may result in a harmful outcome
Latent conditions - Answer those that exist in the aviation system well before a damaging
outcome is experienced. The consequences of latent conditions may remain dormant for
a long time. Initially, these latent conditions are not perceived as harmful, but they will become
evident once the system's defenses have been breached. These conditions are
generally created by people far removed in time and space from the event. Latent conditions in
the system may include those created by the lack of a strong, positive safety
culture, poor equipment or procedural design, conflicting organizational goals, or defective
organizational systems or management decisions. The perspective underlying
the organizational accident aims to identify and mitigate these latent conditions on a system-
wide basis rather than through localized efforts to minimize active failures by
individuals
Speculative risk - Answer the profit or
loss that may result from your conscious investment in a stock or bet on a horse is
an example of speculative risk.
, Pure risk - Answer conveys that only loss, not gain, is possible
if the event occurs. For most of our discussions on safety risk management, the risks
discussed are pure, i.e., undesired, adverse events.
how best to treat the risk. As a general overview, our options
typically include the ability to - Answer • Avoid the risk (by changing our work process or
operations).
• Mitigate the risk (by reducing either the severity or likelihood, or both).
• Accept the risk (by acknowledging the risk and self-insuring for its potential impact).
• Transfer the risk (by outsourcing to a specialist, purchasing insurance. or contract
normalization of deviance - Answer success can be awfully convincing, and because no
negative consequence
materializes after crossing the boundary, we may do it again. By repeating the cycle, the
practical boundary begins to move.
practical drift - Answer you gradually began to drift away from those baselines of
performance. Every organization experiences
this to varying degrees because baseline performance expectations cannot always account for
the complexity of real-life operational influences. Those influences create
pressure to deviate from the intended performance of the system
Safety observations - Answer Using tools derived from LOSA or similar programs can help us to
understand
work as it is actually done
Safety investigations - Answer Investigations traditionally focus on accidents or occurrences,
but we can also investigate what went right in an operation with the goal of
identifying purposeful action that contributes to safety
Safety assessments - Answer : Proactive use of tools like HFACS can help us to look at success,
as well as failure
Safety culture surveys - Answer Assessing safety culture helps us to understand how people
feel about safety in the work environment.