HESI RN EXIT • NGN NURSING
2026 HESI RN Exit Exam
A+
NGN Nursing Questions
2026/2027
Latest PDF Update | Grade A | Verified Solutions | Next Generation NCLEX-Style Items Included
A+ 4 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORIES RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
■ Section 1: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT (23 questions)
■ Section 2: HEALTH PROMOTION & MAINTENANCE (15 questions)
■ Section 3: PSYCHOSOCIAL INTEGRITY (15 questions)
■ Section 4: PHYSIOLOGICAL INTEGRITY — BASIC CARE, PHARM, RISK & ADAPTATION (97 questions)
Passing Score: 75% | Format: MCQ + NGN-style items | Level: RN Exit / Advanced Application
Blueprint: Safe & Effective Care • Health Promotion • Psychosocial Integrity • Physiological Integrity (Basic Care, Pharm, Risk Reduction, Adaptation)
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,SECTION 1: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT
Q1. A newly admitted client with Clostridium difficile infection is assigned to a shared room. The charge nurse’s priority action is to:
A. Allow the assignment if both clients have enteric precautions
B. Reassign the client to a private room and initiate contact precautions
C. Place only a surgical mask on the client
D. Delay isolation until stool culture results return
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions and preferably a private room to prevent transmission via spores. Shared rooms increase risk to
roommates.
Q2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. After verifying the blood with a second nurse at the bedside, the
next priority action is to:
A. Obtain baseline vital signs and remain with the client for the first 15 minutes
B. Start the transfusion at 125 mL/hr immediately
C. Add the blood to an existing IV of D5W
D. Warm the blood in a microwave before hanging
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Baseline vitals and close observation during the first 15 minutes allow early detection of acute transfusion reactions, which are most likely early
in the transfusion.
Q3. A client falls in the hallway. After ensuring the client is stable and calling for assistance, the nurse’s next documentation priority is to:
A. Document only that an incident report was filed
B. Avoid any documentation to limit liability
C. Complete an incident report and document the facts of the fall in the medical record without mentioning the incident report
D. Document opinions about staffing levels in the medical record
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective facts belong in the medical record; incident reports are separate quality tools and should not be referenced in the clinical note.
Q4. A nurse discovers a medication error that reached the client but caused no apparent harm. The appropriate action is to:
A. Ignore the error because no harm occurred
B. Only tell the charge nurse verbally without documentation
C. Blame the pharmacy in the client’s chart
D. Report the error according to facility policy and monitor the client
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All medication errors that reach the client require reporting and monitoring, regardless of immediate harm, to support safety systems and client
care.
Q5. During a fire drill on a medical-surgical unit, the nurse’s first action when discovering smoke in a client room is to:
A. Run to pull the fire alarm
B. Extinguish the fire before moving anyone
C. Rescue the client from immediate danger, then activate the alarm
D. Close all doors and wait for instructions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RACE: Rescue those in danger first, then Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate as appropriate.
Q6. A client with airborne precautions for tuberculosis must be transported to radiology. The nurse ensures:
A. No mask is needed if the trip is short
B. The client wears a surgical mask and the transporter wears an N95 respirator
C. Only the transporter wears a surgical mask
D. The client is transported without any respiratory protection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client wears a surgical mask to contain droplets; staff entering the room or caring for the client use N95 protection as indicated by policy.
Q7. A nurse is floating to an unfamiliar unit. The most appropriate action before accepting a full assignment is to:
A. Refuse any assignment outside the home unit
B. Accept the assignment without asking questions
C. Only care for clients with diagnoses identical to the home unit
D. Identify competencies and request orientation to equipment and high-risk procedures on that unit
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nurses must practice within competence. Seeking orientation and clarifying expectations protects clients and meets professional standards.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 2
, Q8. A visitor insists on bringing outside food to a client on a strict aspiration-risk diet. The nurse’s best response is to:
A. Allow any food the family provides
B. Explain the aspiration risk and collaborate on safe alternatives consistent with the diet order
C. Confiscate the food without explanation
D. Ignore the situation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Education and collaboration balance safety with family involvement while upholding the prescribed diet.
Q9. A nurse receives a verbal telephone order for a high-alert medication. The correct process is to:
A. Administer immediately without read-back
B. Ask another nurse to interpret the order later
C. Enter the order only if the pharmacist approves first
D. Write down the order, read it back for confirmation, and obtain signature per policy within the required timeframe
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Read-back verification reduces transcription errors, especially for high-alert drugs.
Q10. An unresponsive client arrives in the emergency department without identification. The triage nurse’s priority is to:
A. Delay care until family arrives
B. Initiate emergency care using a temporary identification process while continuing efforts to identify the client
C. Assign a random name and withhold treatment
D. Only obtain vital signs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Life-saving care proceeds under emergency standards while identification efforts continue.
Q11. A nurse notices a colleague administering medications without scanning barcodes. The best initial action is to:
A. Report the colleague to the state board immediately
B. Address the safety concern privately and remind the colleague of the barcode policy, escalating if practice continues
C. Ignore the behavior
D. Publicly criticize the colleague in front of clients
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peer intervention supports a culture of safety; escalation follows if the risk continues.
Q12. A client with a history of latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. The perioperative nurse’s priority is to:
A. Ignore the allergy if it was only a childhood reaction
B. Apply latex gloves carefully
C. Ensure a latex-free environment and communicate the allergy to the entire surgical team
D. Document the allergy only after the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Latex allergy can cause anaphylaxis. Proactive latex-free precautions and team communication are essential.
Q13. During shift handoff, the off-going nurse reports a client’s critical lab value that has not yet been communicated to the provider. The
oncoming nurse should:
A. Verify the value, notify the provider promptly, and document the notification
B. Assume the provider already knows
C. Wait until morning rounds
D. Only document the lab without calling
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Critical values require timely provider notification; handoff is an opportunity to close communication gaps.
Q14. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a central line dressing change and accidentally drops a sterile glove package onto a clean but
non-sterile surface. The correct action is to:
A. Use the gloves anyway if the package looks intact
B. Wipe the package with alcohol and open it
C. Have an unlicensed assistive personnel open it
D. Discard the package and obtain a new sterile pair
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Any break in sterile technique requires replacement of the compromised item.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 3
2026 HESI RN Exit Exam
A+
NGN Nursing Questions
2026/2027
Latest PDF Update | Grade A | Verified Solutions | Next Generation NCLEX-Style Items Included
A+ 4 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CLIENT NEEDS CATEGORIES RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
■ Section 1: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT (23 questions)
■ Section 2: HEALTH PROMOTION & MAINTENANCE (15 questions)
■ Section 3: PSYCHOSOCIAL INTEGRITY (15 questions)
■ Section 4: PHYSIOLOGICAL INTEGRITY — BASIC CARE, PHARM, RISK & ADAPTATION (97 questions)
Passing Score: 75% | Format: MCQ + NGN-style items | Level: RN Exit / Advanced Application
Blueprint: Safe & Effective Care • Health Promotion • Psychosocial Integrity • Physiological Integrity (Basic Care, Pharm, Risk Reduction, Adaptation)
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,SECTION 1: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT
Q1. A newly admitted client with Clostridium difficile infection is assigned to a shared room. The charge nurse’s priority action is to:
A. Allow the assignment if both clients have enteric precautions
B. Reassign the client to a private room and initiate contact precautions
C. Place only a surgical mask on the client
D. Delay isolation until stool culture results return
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions and preferably a private room to prevent transmission via spores. Shared rooms increase risk to
roommates.
Q2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. After verifying the blood with a second nurse at the bedside, the
next priority action is to:
A. Obtain baseline vital signs and remain with the client for the first 15 minutes
B. Start the transfusion at 125 mL/hr immediately
C. Add the blood to an existing IV of D5W
D. Warm the blood in a microwave before hanging
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Baseline vitals and close observation during the first 15 minutes allow early detection of acute transfusion reactions, which are most likely early
in the transfusion.
Q3. A client falls in the hallway. After ensuring the client is stable and calling for assistance, the nurse’s next documentation priority is to:
A. Document only that an incident report was filed
B. Avoid any documentation to limit liability
C. Complete an incident report and document the facts of the fall in the medical record without mentioning the incident report
D. Document opinions about staffing levels in the medical record
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective facts belong in the medical record; incident reports are separate quality tools and should not be referenced in the clinical note.
Q4. A nurse discovers a medication error that reached the client but caused no apparent harm. The appropriate action is to:
A. Ignore the error because no harm occurred
B. Only tell the charge nurse verbally without documentation
C. Blame the pharmacy in the client’s chart
D. Report the error according to facility policy and monitor the client
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All medication errors that reach the client require reporting and monitoring, regardless of immediate harm, to support safety systems and client
care.
Q5. During a fire drill on a medical-surgical unit, the nurse’s first action when discovering smoke in a client room is to:
A. Run to pull the fire alarm
B. Extinguish the fire before moving anyone
C. Rescue the client from immediate danger, then activate the alarm
D. Close all doors and wait for instructions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RACE: Rescue those in danger first, then Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate as appropriate.
Q6. A client with airborne precautions for tuberculosis must be transported to radiology. The nurse ensures:
A. No mask is needed if the trip is short
B. The client wears a surgical mask and the transporter wears an N95 respirator
C. Only the transporter wears a surgical mask
D. The client is transported without any respiratory protection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client wears a surgical mask to contain droplets; staff entering the room or caring for the client use N95 protection as indicated by policy.
Q7. A nurse is floating to an unfamiliar unit. The most appropriate action before accepting a full assignment is to:
A. Refuse any assignment outside the home unit
B. Accept the assignment without asking questions
C. Only care for clients with diagnoses identical to the home unit
D. Identify competencies and request orientation to equipment and high-risk procedures on that unit
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nurses must practice within competence. Seeking orientation and clarifying expectations protects clients and meets professional standards.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 2
, Q8. A visitor insists on bringing outside food to a client on a strict aspiration-risk diet. The nurse’s best response is to:
A. Allow any food the family provides
B. Explain the aspiration risk and collaborate on safe alternatives consistent with the diet order
C. Confiscate the food without explanation
D. Ignore the situation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Education and collaboration balance safety with family involvement while upholding the prescribed diet.
Q9. A nurse receives a verbal telephone order for a high-alert medication. The correct process is to:
A. Administer immediately without read-back
B. Ask another nurse to interpret the order later
C. Enter the order only if the pharmacist approves first
D. Write down the order, read it back for confirmation, and obtain signature per policy within the required timeframe
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Read-back verification reduces transcription errors, especially for high-alert drugs.
Q10. An unresponsive client arrives in the emergency department without identification. The triage nurse’s priority is to:
A. Delay care until family arrives
B. Initiate emergency care using a temporary identification process while continuing efforts to identify the client
C. Assign a random name and withhold treatment
D. Only obtain vital signs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Life-saving care proceeds under emergency standards while identification efforts continue.
Q11. A nurse notices a colleague administering medications without scanning barcodes. The best initial action is to:
A. Report the colleague to the state board immediately
B. Address the safety concern privately and remind the colleague of the barcode policy, escalating if practice continues
C. Ignore the behavior
D. Publicly criticize the colleague in front of clients
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peer intervention supports a culture of safety; escalation follows if the risk continues.
Q12. A client with a history of latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. The perioperative nurse’s priority is to:
A. Ignore the allergy if it was only a childhood reaction
B. Apply latex gloves carefully
C. Ensure a latex-free environment and communicate the allergy to the entire surgical team
D. Document the allergy only after the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Latex allergy can cause anaphylaxis. Proactive latex-free precautions and team communication are essential.
Q13. During shift handoff, the off-going nurse reports a client’s critical lab value that has not yet been communicated to the provider. The
oncoming nurse should:
A. Verify the value, notify the provider promptly, and document the notification
B. Assume the provider already knows
C. Wait until morning rounds
D. Only document the lab without calling
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Critical values require timely provider notification; handoff is an opportunity to close communication gaps.
Q14. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a central line dressing change and accidentally drops a sterile glove package onto a clean but
non-sterile surface. The correct action is to:
A. Use the gloves anyway if the package looks intact
B. Wipe the package with alcohol and open it
C. Have an unlicensed assistive personnel open it
D. Discard the package and obtain a new sterile pair
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Any break in sterile technique requires replacement of the compromised item.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 3
