NUR 211 COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM 2026 NEWEST
EXAM PREP COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES | ALREADY GRADED A+| |
BRAND NEW VERSION!!
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1: Fundamentals of Nursing & The Nursing Process (Questions 1-30)
Section 2: Health Assessment & Physical Examination (Questions 31-55)
Section 3: Pharmacology & Medication Administration (Questions 56-90)
Section 4: Fluid, Electrolyte, & Acid-Base Balance (Questions 91-115)
Section 5: Respiratory Disorders (Questions 116-140)
Section 6: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 141-165)
Section 7: Neurological Disorders & Intracranial Regulation (Questions 166-195)
Section 8: Oncology & Hematologic Disorders (Questions 196-220)
Section 9: Musculoskeletal & Mobility Disorders (Questions 221-240)
Section 10: Infection Prevention & Immune Response (Questions 241-260)
Section 11: Gastrointestinal & Nutritional Disorders (Questions 261-280)
Section 12: Renal & Genitourinary Disorders (Questions 281-300)
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING & THE NURSING PROCESS
(Questions 1-30)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who develops hypotension,
tachycardia, and confusion. The nurse recognizes these findings as indicative of
which type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Septic shock
D) Neurogenic shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postoperative hypotension, tachycardia, and confusion are classic signs
of hypovolemic shock due to blood or fluid loss. Cardiogenic shock involves
cardiac pump failure, septic shock involves infection, and neurogenic shock
involves loss of sympathetic tone.
Q2. The nurse is using the nursing process to plan care for a client with
pneumonia. Which step of the nursing process involves prioritizing the client's
nursing diagnoses?
1
,A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Implementation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Planning is the phase where the nurse prioritizes nursing diagnoses,
establishes goals, and selects interventions. Assessment is data collection,
Diagnosis identifies the problem, and Implementation executes the interventions.
Q3. A client tells the nurse, "I don't think I can go through with this surgery."
Which nursing response demonstrates therapeutic communication?
A) "Don't worry, everything will be fine."
B) "You seem to be having some concerns about your surgery."
C) "You should talk to your doctor about that."
D) "Many people feel this way, but you'll be okay."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This response uses the therapeutic technique of reflecting feelings,
which encourages the client to verbalize concerns. Options A and D are false
reassurances, and C is a barrier to communication.
Q4. The nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which statement is correct
regarding hand hygiene protocols?
A) Use soap and water for at least 10 seconds
B) Alcohol-based hand rub is effective against Clostridium difficile
C) Handwashing with soap and water is required when hands are visibly soiled
D) Surgical hand scrub should last at least 30 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, soap and water must be used. Alcohol-
based rubs are not effective against C. diff, spores, or when hands are visibly
dirty. Handwashing should be at least 20 seconds.
Q5. A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which
task is appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
A) Administering oral medications
2
,B) Assessing a client's surgical incision
C) Assisting a client with a bed bath
D) Teaching a client about insulin self-administration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can perform personal hygiene, bathing, feeding, and basic
activities. Administration of medications, assessment, and patient teaching
require licensed nursing judgment and are not delegable to UAPs.
Q6. The nurse is performing the "A" (Airway) portion of the ABCDE primary
survey. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Client talking in full sentences
B) Stridor noted on inspiration
C) Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
D) Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, musical sound indicating upper airway
obstruction and requires immediate intervention (e.g., suctioning, positioning).
Normal talking, normal respiratory rate, and SpO2 of 95% are acceptable findings.
Q7. A client has a living will. The nurse understands that this document:
A) Appoints a healthcare proxy to make decisions
B) Specifies the client's wishes regarding life-sustaining treatment
C) Allows the client to refuse all medical treatment
D) Is only valid if the client is mentally incapacitated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A living will is a legal document that states the client's preferences for
end-of-life care and life-sustaining treatments. A healthcare proxy (durable power
of attorney for healthcare) appoints a surrogate decision-maker.
Q8. The nurse is caring for a client on fall precautions. Which intervention is most
effective for preventing falls in a confused elderly client?
A) Keeping the bed in the lowest position with all side rails up
B) Placing the client in a room near the nurses' station
C) Using physical restraints to prevent wandering
D) Encouraging the client to call for help before getting up
3
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placing a confused client near the nurses' station allows for closer
monitoring and quicker response. Side rails up (all four) can be considered a
restraint and may increase injury risk if the client attempts to climb over them.
Restraints should be a last resort.
Q9. A nurse is providing postoperative care to a client who received general
anesthesia. Which assessment finding is the highest priority in the immediate
postoperative period?
A) Client complains of nausea
B) Client is shivering
C) Client has absent bowel sounds
D) Client has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a life-threatening
complication requiring immediate intervention (oxygen administration, airway
assessment). Nausea, shivering, and absent bowel sounds are common
postoperative findings but are not the highest priority.
Q10. The nurse is documenting client care. Which documentation entry meets
legal standards?
A) "Client appears to be in pain and is acting out."
B) "Client ambulated 50 feet with a walker, tolerated well. Skin intact."
C) "Client seems upset about the diagnosis."
D) "Client is non-compliant with medication regimen."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Documentation must be objective, factual, and descriptive.
"Ambulated 50 feet with walker" is specific and measurable. Subjective judgments
like "appears," "acting out," "seems upset," and "non-compliant" are subjective
and should be avoided.
Q11. The nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which
nursing action maintains sterile technique?
A) Using sterile gloves and sterile supplies
4
EXAM PREP COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES | ALREADY GRADED A+| |
BRAND NEW VERSION!!
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1: Fundamentals of Nursing & The Nursing Process (Questions 1-30)
Section 2: Health Assessment & Physical Examination (Questions 31-55)
Section 3: Pharmacology & Medication Administration (Questions 56-90)
Section 4: Fluid, Electrolyte, & Acid-Base Balance (Questions 91-115)
Section 5: Respiratory Disorders (Questions 116-140)
Section 6: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 141-165)
Section 7: Neurological Disorders & Intracranial Regulation (Questions 166-195)
Section 8: Oncology & Hematologic Disorders (Questions 196-220)
Section 9: Musculoskeletal & Mobility Disorders (Questions 221-240)
Section 10: Infection Prevention & Immune Response (Questions 241-260)
Section 11: Gastrointestinal & Nutritional Disorders (Questions 261-280)
Section 12: Renal & Genitourinary Disorders (Questions 281-300)
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING & THE NURSING PROCESS
(Questions 1-30)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who develops hypotension,
tachycardia, and confusion. The nurse recognizes these findings as indicative of
which type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Septic shock
D) Neurogenic shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postoperative hypotension, tachycardia, and confusion are classic signs
of hypovolemic shock due to blood or fluid loss. Cardiogenic shock involves
cardiac pump failure, septic shock involves infection, and neurogenic shock
involves loss of sympathetic tone.
Q2. The nurse is using the nursing process to plan care for a client with
pneumonia. Which step of the nursing process involves prioritizing the client's
nursing diagnoses?
1
,A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Implementation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Planning is the phase where the nurse prioritizes nursing diagnoses,
establishes goals, and selects interventions. Assessment is data collection,
Diagnosis identifies the problem, and Implementation executes the interventions.
Q3. A client tells the nurse, "I don't think I can go through with this surgery."
Which nursing response demonstrates therapeutic communication?
A) "Don't worry, everything will be fine."
B) "You seem to be having some concerns about your surgery."
C) "You should talk to your doctor about that."
D) "Many people feel this way, but you'll be okay."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This response uses the therapeutic technique of reflecting feelings,
which encourages the client to verbalize concerns. Options A and D are false
reassurances, and C is a barrier to communication.
Q4. The nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which statement is correct
regarding hand hygiene protocols?
A) Use soap and water for at least 10 seconds
B) Alcohol-based hand rub is effective against Clostridium difficile
C) Handwashing with soap and water is required when hands are visibly soiled
D) Surgical hand scrub should last at least 30 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, soap and water must be used. Alcohol-
based rubs are not effective against C. diff, spores, or when hands are visibly
dirty. Handwashing should be at least 20 seconds.
Q5. A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which
task is appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
A) Administering oral medications
2
,B) Assessing a client's surgical incision
C) Assisting a client with a bed bath
D) Teaching a client about insulin self-administration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can perform personal hygiene, bathing, feeding, and basic
activities. Administration of medications, assessment, and patient teaching
require licensed nursing judgment and are not delegable to UAPs.
Q6. The nurse is performing the "A" (Airway) portion of the ABCDE primary
survey. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Client talking in full sentences
B) Stridor noted on inspiration
C) Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
D) Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, musical sound indicating upper airway
obstruction and requires immediate intervention (e.g., suctioning, positioning).
Normal talking, normal respiratory rate, and SpO2 of 95% are acceptable findings.
Q7. A client has a living will. The nurse understands that this document:
A) Appoints a healthcare proxy to make decisions
B) Specifies the client's wishes regarding life-sustaining treatment
C) Allows the client to refuse all medical treatment
D) Is only valid if the client is mentally incapacitated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A living will is a legal document that states the client's preferences for
end-of-life care and life-sustaining treatments. A healthcare proxy (durable power
of attorney for healthcare) appoints a surrogate decision-maker.
Q8. The nurse is caring for a client on fall precautions. Which intervention is most
effective for preventing falls in a confused elderly client?
A) Keeping the bed in the lowest position with all side rails up
B) Placing the client in a room near the nurses' station
C) Using physical restraints to prevent wandering
D) Encouraging the client to call for help before getting up
3
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placing a confused client near the nurses' station allows for closer
monitoring and quicker response. Side rails up (all four) can be considered a
restraint and may increase injury risk if the client attempts to climb over them.
Restraints should be a last resort.
Q9. A nurse is providing postoperative care to a client who received general
anesthesia. Which assessment finding is the highest priority in the immediate
postoperative period?
A) Client complains of nausea
B) Client is shivering
C) Client has absent bowel sounds
D) Client has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a life-threatening
complication requiring immediate intervention (oxygen administration, airway
assessment). Nausea, shivering, and absent bowel sounds are common
postoperative findings but are not the highest priority.
Q10. The nurse is documenting client care. Which documentation entry meets
legal standards?
A) "Client appears to be in pain and is acting out."
B) "Client ambulated 50 feet with a walker, tolerated well. Skin intact."
C) "Client seems upset about the diagnosis."
D) "Client is non-compliant with medication regimen."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Documentation must be objective, factual, and descriptive.
"Ambulated 50 feet with walker" is specific and measurable. Subjective judgments
like "appears," "acting out," "seems upset," and "non-compliant" are subjective
and should be avoided.
Q11. The nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which
nursing action maintains sterile technique?
A) Using sterile gloves and sterile supplies
4
