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NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm
Exam (Walden University) | Advanced/Hard/Mixed
Difficulty | Nursing Students | 100% Pass Guaranteed
| Graded A+
1. A patient is diagnosed with an autosomal dominant disorder. Which of the following
statements regarding this type of inheritance is correct?
A. The disorder is passed from mother to son exclusively
B. Both parents must be carriers to pass the trait
C. Affected individuals have a 50% chance of transmitting the trait to each offspring
D. The disorder only manifests in males
☑ Correct Answer: C
☑ ☑ Explanation: In autosomal dominant inheritance, each affected individual has a 50%
chance of passing the mutated gene to each offspring. The disorder can affect both males and
females, and only one affected parent is needed to transmit the trait. Sons and daughters are
equally affected.
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2. A 45-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. Laboratory
results show a hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 105 fL, and normal
reticulocyte count. Which type of anemia is most consistent with these findings?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
☑ Correct Answer: C
☑ ☑ Explanation: Megaloblastic anemia (caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiency)
presents with macrocytic RBCs (MCV > 100 fL), anemia, and normal or low reticulocyte count.
Iron deficiency anemia is microcytic (low MCV). Anemia of chronic disease is normocytic. Sickle
cell anemia is normocytic with characteristic sickle-shaped cells.
3. A patient with a history of chronic hepatitis C develops ascites, jaundice, and confusion.
Laboratory results show elevated ammonia levels. Which pathophysiological mechanism is
most responsible for the elevated ammonia?
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A. Decreased renal excretion of ammonia
B. Decreased hepatic conversion of ammonia to urea
C. Increased protein intake
D. Increased production of ammonia from muscles
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ ☑ Explanation: In liver failure (such as from chronic hepatitis C), the liver loses its
ability to convert ammonia to urea through the urea cycle. This leads to hyperammonemia,
which contributes to hepatic encephalopathy. The kidneys play a minor role in ammonia
excretion. Protein intake and muscle production are not the primary causes of ammonia
elevation in this scenario.
4. The nurse practitioner understands that the primary pathophysiological mechanism
underlying type 1 diabetes mellitus is:
A. Insulin resistance at the cellular level
B. Destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to absolute insulin deficiency
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C. Increased production of glucagon
D. Decreased sensitivity of the insulin receptor
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ ☑ Explanation: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disorder characterized by
the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in absolute insulin deficiency. Type 2 diabetes
is characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency. Glucagon production may be
altered but is not the primary mechanism.
5. A 68-year-old female presents with progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and fatigue. She
reports that solid foods "get stuck" in her chest. Which condition is most likely?
A. Esophageal reflux
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Achalasia
☑ Correct Answer: B
NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm
Exam (Walden University) | Advanced/Hard/Mixed
Difficulty | Nursing Students | 100% Pass Guaranteed
| Graded A+
1. A patient is diagnosed with an autosomal dominant disorder. Which of the following
statements regarding this type of inheritance is correct?
A. The disorder is passed from mother to son exclusively
B. Both parents must be carriers to pass the trait
C. Affected individuals have a 50% chance of transmitting the trait to each offspring
D. The disorder only manifests in males
☑ Correct Answer: C
☑ ☑ Explanation: In autosomal dominant inheritance, each affected individual has a 50%
chance of passing the mutated gene to each offspring. The disorder can affect both males and
females, and only one affected parent is needed to transmit the trait. Sons and daughters are
equally affected.
,2
2. A 45-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. Laboratory
results show a hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 105 fL, and normal
reticulocyte count. Which type of anemia is most consistent with these findings?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
☑ Correct Answer: C
☑ ☑ Explanation: Megaloblastic anemia (caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiency)
presents with macrocytic RBCs (MCV > 100 fL), anemia, and normal or low reticulocyte count.
Iron deficiency anemia is microcytic (low MCV). Anemia of chronic disease is normocytic. Sickle
cell anemia is normocytic with characteristic sickle-shaped cells.
3. A patient with a history of chronic hepatitis C develops ascites, jaundice, and confusion.
Laboratory results show elevated ammonia levels. Which pathophysiological mechanism is
most responsible for the elevated ammonia?
,3
A. Decreased renal excretion of ammonia
B. Decreased hepatic conversion of ammonia to urea
C. Increased protein intake
D. Increased production of ammonia from muscles
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ ☑ Explanation: In liver failure (such as from chronic hepatitis C), the liver loses its
ability to convert ammonia to urea through the urea cycle. This leads to hyperammonemia,
which contributes to hepatic encephalopathy. The kidneys play a minor role in ammonia
excretion. Protein intake and muscle production are not the primary causes of ammonia
elevation in this scenario.
4. The nurse practitioner understands that the primary pathophysiological mechanism
underlying type 1 diabetes mellitus is:
A. Insulin resistance at the cellular level
B. Destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to absolute insulin deficiency
, 4
C. Increased production of glucagon
D. Decreased sensitivity of the insulin receptor
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ ☑ Explanation: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disorder characterized by
the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in absolute insulin deficiency. Type 2 diabetes
is characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency. Glucagon production may be
altered but is not the primary mechanism.
5. A 68-year-old female presents with progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and fatigue. She
reports that solid foods "get stuck" in her chest. Which condition is most likely?
A. Esophageal reflux
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Achalasia
☑ Correct Answer: B
