ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam – ATI RN Mental Health Nursing Study Guide, Original Practice Questions & Answers, Comprehensive Assessment Preparation, Psychiatric Nursing Review, Therapeutic Communication, Mental Status Examination, Anxiety & Trauma-Re

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam – ATI RN Mental
Health Nursing Study Guide, Original Practice Questions &
Answers, Comprehensive Assessment Preparation,
Psychiatric Nursing Review, Therapeutic Communication,
Mental Status Examination, Anxiety & Trauma-Related
Disorders, Mood Disorders, Bipolar Disorder, Depression,
Schizophrenia, Psychopharmacology, Substance Use
Disorders, Crisis Intervention, Suicide Prevention, Patient
Safety & NGN-Style Clinical Judgment
Question 1: A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "The FBI is monitoring
my thoughts through the television." Which nursing diagnosis should be
prioritized?
A. Social Isolation
B. Disturbed Sensory Perception
C. Risk for Self-Directed Violence
D. Impaired Verbal Communication
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Disturbed Sensory Perception
Rationale: The client's statement reflects a hallucination or delusion involving external
control and monitoring, which falls under the domain of Disturbed Sensory Perception
(specifically auditory/visual misperceptions). Prioritizing this addresses the immediate
psychotic symptom. While Social Isolation may be a concern, the primary issue is the
perceptual alteration.


Question 2: A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get
out of bed. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Allow the client to rest until they feel motivated.
B. Provide a structured schedule and encourage participation in activities.
C. Administer a PRN sedative to calm the client.
D. Restrict fluids to prevent falls when getting up.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide a structured schedule and encourage
participation in activities.
Rationale: Structured routines and gradual activation are essential in treating depression
to combat withdrawal and psychomotor retardation. Allowing rest reinforces isolation.
Sedatives would exacerbate depression and lethargy.


Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client with bulimia nervosa. Which finding
is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Lanugo hair growth
B. Erosion of dental enamel

,C. Severe hypotension
D. Amenorrhea for 6 months
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Erosion of dental enamel
Rationale: Dental enamel erosion is a classic physical finding in bulimia nervosa due to
repeated exposure of teeth to gastric acid during purging (self-induced vomiting).
Lanugo hair and amenorrhea are more typical of anorexia nervosa.


Question 4: A client experiencing alcohol withdrawal begins to have a seizure.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Naloxone
B. Lorazepam
C. Haloperidol
D. Thiamine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Lorazepam
Rationale: Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam) are the first-line treatment for alcohol
withdrawal seizures to prevent status epilepticus and manage autonomic instability.
Thiamine is given to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, but seizure cessation requires
a benzodiazepine. Naloxone is for opioid overdose.


Question 5: A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports
recurrent nightmares of a car accident. Which intervention should the nurse
include in the plan of care?
A. Encourage the client to avoid discussing the accident.
B. Teach the client relaxation techniques to manage anxiety.
C. Suggest the client sleep with the lights on to reduce fear.
D. Instruct the client to focus on the nightmares immediately upon waking.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Teach the client relaxation techniques to manage
anxiety.
Rationale: Relaxation techniques help manage anxiety and hyperarousal associated with
PTSD. Avoiding discussion reinforces avoidance behavior. Focusing on nightmares
without therapeutic processing is not beneficial without professional guidance.


Question 6: A client prescribed fluoxetine for depression reports insomnia.
What should the nurse recommend?
A. Take the medication at bedtime.
B. Take the medication in the morning.

,C. Double the dose to induce drowsiness.
D. Discontinue the medication immediately.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Take the medication in the morning.
Rationale: Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that has an
activating effect. Administering it in the morning minimizes insomnia and allows the
client to sleep better at night.


Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a
manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage competition during group activities.
B. Decrease environmental stimuli and provide a quiet room.
C. Give detailed verbal instructions for self-care.
D. Offer high-calorie finger foods to the client.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Decrease environmental stimuli and provide a quiet
room.
Rationale: During a manic episode, the client is highly susceptible to sensory overload.
Decreasing stimuli (low lighting, quiet area) helps reduce agitation and promotes safety.
Competition increases agitation. High-calorie finger foods are appropriate, but the
priority is environmental management.


Question 8: A client with antisocial personality disorder manipulates staff to
get extra privileges. Which approach should the nurse take?
A. Confront the client immediately and restrict all visitors.
B. Set firm, consistent limits and discuss consequences.
C. Allow the behaviors to avoid escalating the situation.
D. Ignore the behaviors and reward them with privileges.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Set firm, consistent limits and discuss consequences.
Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder requires clear, consistent boundaries to
manage manipulation. Firm limits with consequences help the client understand
accountability without reinforcing maladaptive behaviors.


Question 9: A client is admitted with suicidal ideation. What is the most
critical initial assessment?
A. The client’s economic status and employment history.
B. The client's specific plan and means for suicide.
C. The client’s family history of cancer.
D. The client’s favorite hobbies and interests.

, CORRECT ANSWER: B. The client's specific plan and means for suicide.
Rationale: Assessment of suicidal intent, specifically the lethality and specificity of the
plan and access to means, is the priority safety assessment. This determines the level of
precautions needed.


Question 10: A client on haloperidol develops torticollis and oculogyric crisis.
What should the nurse administer?
A. Benztropine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Bromocriptine
D. Amantadine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Diphenhydramine
Rationale: Torticollis and oculogyric crisis are acute dystonic reactions caused by
antipsychotics. Anticholinergic medications like diphenhydramine or benztropine are
used for immediate treatment. Benztropine is used, but diphenhydramine is often the
first-line for acute treatment.


Question 11: A client with borderline personality disorder has a history of self-
mutilation. Which intervention is most therapeutic?
A. Place the client in seclusion for safety.
B. Establish a "no-harm" contract and monitor frequently.
C. Ignore the behavior as attention-seeking.
D. Administer a sedative to calm the client.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Establish a "no-harm" contract and monitor frequently.
Rationale: A "no-harm" contract helps clarify expectations and provides a framework for
the therapeutic relationship. Frequent monitoring ensures safety and demonstrates care,
while not reinforcing the behavior.


Question 12: A client with Alzheimer's disease is pacing in the hallway and
becoming agitated. What is the nurse's best action?
A. Restrain the client to prevent falls.
B. Approach the client calmly and redirect to a safe area.
C. Administer a PRN dose of haloperidol immediately.
D. Tell the client to sit down and stop pacing.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Approach the client calmly and redirect to a safe area.