, NBDHE EXAM 2025 NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL HYGIENE
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS NEWEST ALREADY GRADED A+.
150 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Apply advanced knowledge of head and neck anatomy to clinical scenarios
2 Evaluate and select appropriate pharmacological interventions in dental hygiene care
3 Interpret radiographic findings and integrate them with clinical assessment
4 Demonstrate understanding of periodontal disease etiology and systemic interactions
5 Formulate evidence-based community health and prevention strategies
6 NBDHE Exam 2025 National Board Dental Hygiene Examination Questions And Answers Practice
Questions with Solutions Newest Already Graded A+.
7 Foundations of Dental Hygiene
8 Applied Dental Hygiene
9 Advanced Dental Hygiene
10 Dental Hygiene Review
Page 1
,Q1 APPLY ADVANCED KNOWLEDGE OF HEAD AND NECK ANATOMY TO CLINICAL
SCENARIOS
During a submandibular gland excision, the surgeon identifies a nerve running
along the inferior border of the mandible. Which nerve is at risk, and what would
be the consequence of injury?
A. Hypoglossal nerve; ipsilateral tongue deviation on protrusion.
B. Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve; ipsilateral lower lip weakness. CORRECT
C. Lingual nerve; loss of general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
D. Inferior alveolar nerve; anesthesia of the lower lip and chin.
RATIONALE: The marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve runs along the inferior border of
the mandible and can be injured during submandibular gland excision, causing ipsilateral lower
lip weakness. The hypoglossal nerve lies deeper, the lingual nerve is medial, and the inferior
alveolar nerve runs within the mandible.
Q2 APPLY ADVANCED KNOWLEDGE OF HEAD AND NECK ANATOMY TO CLINICAL
SCENARIOS
A patient with a history of infective endocarditis requires scaling and root planing.
Which antibiotic prophylaxis regimen is recommended by the current American
Heart Association guidelines?
A. Amoxicillin 2 g orally 30-60 minutes prior to procedure. CORRECT
B. Clindamycin 600 mg orally 30-60 minutes prior to procedure.
C. Amoxicillin 3 g orally 1 hour prior, then 1.5 g 6 hours later.
D. No prophylaxis is indicated for dental procedures.
RATIONALE: Current AHA guidelines recommend amoxicillin 2 g orally 30-60 minutes before the
procedure for patients with infective endocarditis risk. Clindamycin is an alternative for
penicillin-allergic patients, not first-line. The 3 g/1.5 g regimen is outdated. Prophylaxis is
indicated for certain cardiac conditions.
Page 2
, Q3 APPLY ADVANCED KNOWLEDGE OF HEAD AND NECK ANATOMY TO CLINICAL
SCENARIOS
Which of the following radiographic findings is most indicative of a periapical
abscess?
A. Well-defined radiolucency with a corticated border at the apex.
B. Diffuse radiolucency with loss of lamina dura at the apex. CORRECT
C. Radiolucent lesion with radiopaque foci resembling teeth.
D. Symmetric widening of the periodontal ligament space.
RATIONALE: A periapical abscess typically appears as a diffuse radiolucency with loss of lamina
dura due to acute inflammation. A well-defined corticated radiolucency suggests a chronic lesion
like a granuloma or cyst. Radiopaque foci are characteristic of odontomas. Symmetric PDL
widening can be physiologic or due to occlusal trauma.
Q4 APPLY ADVANCED KNOWLEDGE OF HEAD AND NECK ANATOMY TO CLINICAL
SCENARIOS
In the pathogenesis of periodontitis, which cytokine profile is most associated
with T-helper 17 (Th17) cell activity and alveolar bone resorption?
A. High IL-10, low IL-17, high TGF-beta.
B. High IL-17, high IL-23, high RANKL. CORRECT
C. High IL-4, high IL-5, low RANKL.
D. Low IL-17, low IL-23, high OPG.
RATIONALE: Th17 cells produce IL-17, which stimulates RANKL expression and
osteoclastogenesis, leading to bone resorption. IL-23 stabilizes Th17 cells. IL-10 and TGF-beta
are anti-inflammatory. IL-4 and IL-5 are associated with Th2 responses and are not
pro-osteoclastic.
Page 3
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS NEWEST ALREADY GRADED A+.
150 QUESTIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
# TOPIC
1 Apply advanced knowledge of head and neck anatomy to clinical scenarios
2 Evaluate and select appropriate pharmacological interventions in dental hygiene care
3 Interpret radiographic findings and integrate them with clinical assessment
4 Demonstrate understanding of periodontal disease etiology and systemic interactions
5 Formulate evidence-based community health and prevention strategies
6 NBDHE Exam 2025 National Board Dental Hygiene Examination Questions And Answers Practice
Questions with Solutions Newest Already Graded A+.
7 Foundations of Dental Hygiene
8 Applied Dental Hygiene
9 Advanced Dental Hygiene
10 Dental Hygiene Review
Page 1
,Q1 APPLY ADVANCED KNOWLEDGE OF HEAD AND NECK ANATOMY TO CLINICAL
SCENARIOS
During a submandibular gland excision, the surgeon identifies a nerve running
along the inferior border of the mandible. Which nerve is at risk, and what would
be the consequence of injury?
A. Hypoglossal nerve; ipsilateral tongue deviation on protrusion.
B. Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve; ipsilateral lower lip weakness. CORRECT
C. Lingual nerve; loss of general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
D. Inferior alveolar nerve; anesthesia of the lower lip and chin.
RATIONALE: The marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve runs along the inferior border of
the mandible and can be injured during submandibular gland excision, causing ipsilateral lower
lip weakness. The hypoglossal nerve lies deeper, the lingual nerve is medial, and the inferior
alveolar nerve runs within the mandible.
Q2 APPLY ADVANCED KNOWLEDGE OF HEAD AND NECK ANATOMY TO CLINICAL
SCENARIOS
A patient with a history of infective endocarditis requires scaling and root planing.
Which antibiotic prophylaxis regimen is recommended by the current American
Heart Association guidelines?
A. Amoxicillin 2 g orally 30-60 minutes prior to procedure. CORRECT
B. Clindamycin 600 mg orally 30-60 minutes prior to procedure.
C. Amoxicillin 3 g orally 1 hour prior, then 1.5 g 6 hours later.
D. No prophylaxis is indicated for dental procedures.
RATIONALE: Current AHA guidelines recommend amoxicillin 2 g orally 30-60 minutes before the
procedure for patients with infective endocarditis risk. Clindamycin is an alternative for
penicillin-allergic patients, not first-line. The 3 g/1.5 g regimen is outdated. Prophylaxis is
indicated for certain cardiac conditions.
Page 2
, Q3 APPLY ADVANCED KNOWLEDGE OF HEAD AND NECK ANATOMY TO CLINICAL
SCENARIOS
Which of the following radiographic findings is most indicative of a periapical
abscess?
A. Well-defined radiolucency with a corticated border at the apex.
B. Diffuse radiolucency with loss of lamina dura at the apex. CORRECT
C. Radiolucent lesion with radiopaque foci resembling teeth.
D. Symmetric widening of the periodontal ligament space.
RATIONALE: A periapical abscess typically appears as a diffuse radiolucency with loss of lamina
dura due to acute inflammation. A well-defined corticated radiolucency suggests a chronic lesion
like a granuloma or cyst. Radiopaque foci are characteristic of odontomas. Symmetric PDL
widening can be physiologic or due to occlusal trauma.
Q4 APPLY ADVANCED KNOWLEDGE OF HEAD AND NECK ANATOMY TO CLINICAL
SCENARIOS
In the pathogenesis of periodontitis, which cytokine profile is most associated
with T-helper 17 (Th17) cell activity and alveolar bone resorption?
A. High IL-10, low IL-17, high TGF-beta.
B. High IL-17, high IL-23, high RANKL. CORRECT
C. High IL-4, high IL-5, low RANKL.
D. Low IL-17, low IL-23, high OPG.
RATIONALE: Th17 cells produce IL-17, which stimulates RANKL expression and
osteoclastogenesis, leading to bone resorption. IL-23 stabilizes Th17 cells. IL-10 and TGF-beta
are anti-inflammatory. IL-4 and IL-5 are associated with Th2 responses and are not
pro-osteoclastic.
Page 3
