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NR511 WEEK 2 CEA EXAM PRACTICE 2026 COMPLETE
(105) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NR511
Prepare for the NR511 Week 2 CEA Exam with this comprehensive practice resource
designed to support your exam preparation. It features exam-style questions covering
advanced pathophysiology, differential diagnosis, patient assessment, diagnostic
reasoning, and evidence-based clinical decision-making. Use it to reinforce key
concepts, assess your knowledge, and build confidence before your CEA exam. An
excellent study aid for nursing students preparing for the NR511 Week 2 Clinical
Evaluation Assessment.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Question 1: A diagnostic test is used in a sample of 1000 patients. 500 of
these patients have the disease, while 500 do not. Of those 500 patients
without the disease, 30 test positive, and 470 test negative. What is the
specificity of the test?
A. 30/500
B. 470/500
C. 500/1000
D. 30/1000
Correct answer: B. 470/500
Rationale: Specificity is the proportion of patients who test negative out of
the total number of patients who do not have the disease (true negatives ÷
overall negatives). In this example, 470 true negatives ÷ 500 patients
without disease = 94% specificity .
Question 2: The Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of a test refers to which of the
following?
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A. The proportion of patients with a negative test who do not have the disease
B. The proportion of patients with a positive test who have the disease
C. The ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease
D. The consistency of a test result
Correct answer: B. The proportion of patients with a positive test who
have the disease
Rationale: PPV represents the proportion of patients with a positive test
result who truly have the disease. It depends on the prevalence of the
disease in the population being tested .
Question 3: Which of the following depends on the prevalence of the
disease?
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value
D. Reliability
Correct answer: C. Positive predictive value
Rationale: Predictive values depend on disease prevalence in the
population, whereas sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic properties of
the test itself .
Question 4: A low pretest probability of disease may lead to which of the
following?
A. High positive predictive value
B. Low positive predictive value and more false-positive results
C. Fewer false-positive results
D. Increased sensitivity
Correct answer: B. Low positive predictive value and more false-positive
results
Rationale: When pretest probability is low, even a positive test result is
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more likely to be a false positive than a true positive, resulting in a low
PPV .
Question 5: A 71-year-old female presents for a post-hospital discharge visit
after being treated for a CHF exacerbation. The hospitalist documented a
"new murmur." During which phase of the cardiac cycle would you anticipate
auscultating an S3 or S4 heart sound?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. Mid-systole
D. End-systole
Correct answer: B. Diastole
Rationale: S3 and S4 heart sounds are both diastolic events. S3 occurs in
early diastole during rapid ventricular filling and is often heard in
conditions with increased ventricular volume, such as heart failure. S4
occurs in late diastole during atrial contraction and is associated with
reduced ventricular compliance .
Question 6: A patient with chronic heart failure presents with dyspnea,
orthopnea, and peripheral edema. Which lab value best indicates worsening
heart failure?
A. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) 600 pg/mL
C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
D. WBC 8,000/mm³
Correct answer: B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) 600 pg/mL
Rationale: BNP is released from the ventricles in response to increased
wall stretch and volume overload. Elevated BNP levels correlate with the
severity of heart failure and are a sensitive marker for worsening cardiac
function .
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Question 7: A 30-year-old woman is suspected of having cauda equina
compression due to a herniated disc at L5-S1. Which sign or symptom is most
consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Numbness of the lateral foot
B. Gastrocnemius weakness
C. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
D. Reduced or absent ankle reflexes
Correct answer: C. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Rationale: Cauda equina syndrome presents with "saddle anesthesia"
(paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks) along with bowel/bladder
dysfunction. This is a surgical emergency requiring immediate referral .
Question 8: A 13-year-old obese boy (BMI above 95th percentile) reports left
groin, thigh, and medial knee pain for the past 2 months. He now cannot bear
weight on his left leg. Exam reveals decreased internal rotation and abduction
of the left hip with external rotation when the hip is flexed. What should the
nurse practitioner suspect?
A. Left meniscal tear
B. Left ACL tear
C. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
D. Osgood-Schlatter disease
Correct answer: C. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
Rationale: SCFE is a hip disorder most common in obese adolescents. The
femoral head slips posteriorly and inferiorly off the femoral neck through
the growth plate. Referred pain to the medial knee is a classic
presentation, often delaying diagnosis. This is an orthopaedic emergency
requiring immediate non-weight-bearing and surgical referral .
Question 9: Sally, age 25, presents with pruritic, tender, red vesicles
surrounded by erythema. The rash is ulcerating. She has not been adequately
treated. This presentation is consistent with which type of impetigo?
NR511 WEEK 2 CEA EXAM PRACTICE 2026 COMPLETE
(105) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NR511
Prepare for the NR511 Week 2 CEA Exam with this comprehensive practice resource
designed to support your exam preparation. It features exam-style questions covering
advanced pathophysiology, differential diagnosis, patient assessment, diagnostic
reasoning, and evidence-based clinical decision-making. Use it to reinforce key
concepts, assess your knowledge, and build confidence before your CEA exam. An
excellent study aid for nursing students preparing for the NR511 Week 2 Clinical
Evaluation Assessment.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Question 1: A diagnostic test is used in a sample of 1000 patients. 500 of
these patients have the disease, while 500 do not. Of those 500 patients
without the disease, 30 test positive, and 470 test negative. What is the
specificity of the test?
A. 30/500
B. 470/500
C. 500/1000
D. 30/1000
Correct answer: B. 470/500
Rationale: Specificity is the proportion of patients who test negative out of
the total number of patients who do not have the disease (true negatives ÷
overall negatives). In this example, 470 true negatives ÷ 500 patients
without disease = 94% specificity .
Question 2: The Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of a test refers to which of the
following?
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A. The proportion of patients with a negative test who do not have the disease
B. The proportion of patients with a positive test who have the disease
C. The ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease
D. The consistency of a test result
Correct answer: B. The proportion of patients with a positive test who
have the disease
Rationale: PPV represents the proportion of patients with a positive test
result who truly have the disease. It depends on the prevalence of the
disease in the population being tested .
Question 3: Which of the following depends on the prevalence of the
disease?
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value
D. Reliability
Correct answer: C. Positive predictive value
Rationale: Predictive values depend on disease prevalence in the
population, whereas sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic properties of
the test itself .
Question 4: A low pretest probability of disease may lead to which of the
following?
A. High positive predictive value
B. Low positive predictive value and more false-positive results
C. Fewer false-positive results
D. Increased sensitivity
Correct answer: B. Low positive predictive value and more false-positive
results
Rationale: When pretest probability is low, even a positive test result is
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more likely to be a false positive than a true positive, resulting in a low
PPV .
Question 5: A 71-year-old female presents for a post-hospital discharge visit
after being treated for a CHF exacerbation. The hospitalist documented a
"new murmur." During which phase of the cardiac cycle would you anticipate
auscultating an S3 or S4 heart sound?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. Mid-systole
D. End-systole
Correct answer: B. Diastole
Rationale: S3 and S4 heart sounds are both diastolic events. S3 occurs in
early diastole during rapid ventricular filling and is often heard in
conditions with increased ventricular volume, such as heart failure. S4
occurs in late diastole during atrial contraction and is associated with
reduced ventricular compliance .
Question 6: A patient with chronic heart failure presents with dyspnea,
orthopnea, and peripheral edema. Which lab value best indicates worsening
heart failure?
A. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) 600 pg/mL
C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
D. WBC 8,000/mm³
Correct answer: B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) 600 pg/mL
Rationale: BNP is released from the ventricles in response to increased
wall stretch and volume overload. Elevated BNP levels correlate with the
severity of heart failure and are a sensitive marker for worsening cardiac
function .
, Page 4 of 43
Question 7: A 30-year-old woman is suspected of having cauda equina
compression due to a herniated disc at L5-S1. Which sign or symptom is most
consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Numbness of the lateral foot
B. Gastrocnemius weakness
C. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
D. Reduced or absent ankle reflexes
Correct answer: C. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Rationale: Cauda equina syndrome presents with "saddle anesthesia"
(paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks) along with bowel/bladder
dysfunction. This is a surgical emergency requiring immediate referral .
Question 8: A 13-year-old obese boy (BMI above 95th percentile) reports left
groin, thigh, and medial knee pain for the past 2 months. He now cannot bear
weight on his left leg. Exam reveals decreased internal rotation and abduction
of the left hip with external rotation when the hip is flexed. What should the
nurse practitioner suspect?
A. Left meniscal tear
B. Left ACL tear
C. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
D. Osgood-Schlatter disease
Correct answer: C. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
Rationale: SCFE is a hip disorder most common in obese adolescents. The
femoral head slips posteriorly and inferiorly off the femoral neck through
the growth plate. Referred pain to the medial knee is a classic
presentation, often delaying diagnosis. This is an orthopaedic emergency
requiring immediate non-weight-bearing and surgical referral .
Question 9: Sally, age 25, presents with pruritic, tender, red vesicles
surrounded by erythema. The rash is ulcerating. She has not been adequately
treated. This presentation is consistent with which type of impetigo?
