• Wrong document? Swap it for free
  • Written by students who passed
  • Immediately available after payment
  • Read online or as PDF
Sell
Where do you study
Your language
Document preview thumbnail
Preview 4 out of 104 pages
Exam (elaborations)

NUR 6121 Advanced Health Assessment Exam 2 2026/2027 – Complete 300 Exam Questions and Correct Answers with Rationales Guaranteed Pass (GRADED A+)

Document preview thumbnail
Preview 4 out of 104 pages

NUR 6121 Advanced Health Assessment Exam 2 2026/2027 – Complete 300 Exam Questions and Correct Answers with Rationales Guaranteed Pass (GRADED A+)

Content preview

NUR 6121 Advanced Health Assessment
Exam 2 2026/2027 – Complete 300 Exam
Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationales Guaranteed Pass (GRADED
A+)

Cardiovascular & Pulmonary Assessment


Question 1

A 68-year-old male with a history of heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction (HFrEF) presents with progressive dyspnea,
orthopnea, and 3+ pitting edema to the knees. His current
medications include lisinopril, carvedilol, and furosemide. Which
additional medication has been shown to reduce mortality in this
condition?

A) Digoxin
B) Hydralazine
C) Spironolactone
D) Diltiazem

Correct Answer: C) Spironolactone

Rationale: Spironolactone (mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist)
reduces mortality and hospitalizations in patients with NYHA class
III-IV heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. Digoxin
improves symptoms but not mortality. Hydralazine/nitrates are

,beneficial in African Americans as adjunct therapy. Diltiazem is
contraindicated in HFrEF .




Question 2

A 46-year-old male reports burning retrosternal pain when lying
flat. On auscultation, you hear a soft holosystolic murmur at the
apex radiating to the axilla that increases with handgrip. Which
valvular pathology is most consistent with these findings?

A) Mitral regurgitation
B) Tricuspid stenosis
C) Aortic stenosis
D) Pulmonic regurgitation

Correct Answer: A) Mitral regurgitation

Rationale: Mitral regurgitation presents with a holosystolic
murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Handgrip increases
afterload, which worsens mitral regurgitation and increases
murmur intensity. Orthopnea (pain when lying flat) is consistent
with pulmonary congestion secondary to left-sided valvular
disease .




Question 3

A 55-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents
with hemoptysis, weight loss, and a persistent cough. Chest X-ray

,shows a right hilar mass. Which additional finding on physical
exam would most suggest lung cancer with superior vena cava
syndrome?

A) Unilateral wheezing
B) Facial swelling and distended neck veins
C) Clubbing of the fingers
D) Horner syndrome

Correct Answer: B) Facial swelling and distended neck veins

Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs due to
obstruction of the SVC by a mediastinal mass (often lung cancer),
leading to facial edema, plethora, distended neck veins, and upper
extremity swelling. Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis)
indicates apical (Pancoast) tumor .




Neurological Assessment

Question 4

A 58-year-old male presents with sudden-onset right facial droop,
slurred speech, and right arm drift lasting 20 minutes. On exam
you note right upper face involvement, left gaze preference, and
no limb ataxia. Carotid auscultation reveals a faint systolic bruit.
Which cranial nerve dysfunction best localizes this transient
episode?

A) Right CN VII nuclear lesion
B) Left CN VI peripheral palsy

, C) Left cortical CN VII upper motor neuron involvement
D) Right CN XII lower motor neuron lesion

Correct Answer: C) Left cortical CN VII upper motor neuron
involvement

Rationale: Upper motor neuron (UMN) lesions of CN VII spare the
forehead (bilateral innervation) and present with contralateral
lower facial weakness. A left cortical lesion would cause right-
sided lower facial weakness (sparing forehead) with arm
involvement, consistent with this presentation .




Question 5

A 71-year-old female with atrial fibrillation on rivaroxaban
presents with acute left calf pain and swelling. Homan sign is
negative but Wells score is 3. Which component of the Wells
criteria carries the highest individual positive weight and should
prompt urgent duplex imaging?

A) Previously documented DVT
B) Active cancer treatment
C) Recent plaster immobilization
D) Alternative diagnosis less likely

Correct Answer: D) Alternative diagnosis less likely

Rationale: In the Wells criteria for DVT, "alternative diagnosis less
likely than DVT" carries a weight of +3 points, the highest

Document information

Uploaded on
August 31, 2026
Number of pages
104
Written in
2026/2027
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers
$21.99

Wrong document? Swap it for free Within 14 days of purchase and before downloading, you can choose a different document. You can simply spend the amount again.
Written by students who passed
Immediately available after payment
Read online or as PDF

Sold
10
Followers
0
Items
840
Last sold
3 days ago



Why students choose Stuvia

Created by fellow students, verified by reviews

Quality you can trust: written by students who passed their tests and reviewed by others who've used these notes.

Didn't get what you expected? Choose another document

No worries! You can instantly pick a different document that better fits what you're looking for.

Pay as you like, start learning right away

No subscription, no commitments. Pay the way you're used to via credit card and download your PDF document instantly.

Student with book image

“Bought, downloaded, and aced it. It really can be that simple.”

Alisha Student

Working on your references?

Create accurate citations in APA, MLA and Harvard with our free citation generator.

Working on your references?

Frequently asked questions