NSG 550 Exam 2 2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Answers with
Rationales | Wilkes University - Guaranteed Pass
Advanced Pharmacology & Medication Management
1. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops facial swelling and
difficulty breathing. What is the priority concern?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Angioedema
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause angioedema, which may rapidly
compromise the airway and requires immediate intervention.
2. Which electrolyte abnormality is particularly associated with ACE
inhibitor therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibition decreases aldosterone activity and may
increase serum potassium.
3. A patient taking a thiazide diuretic should have which laboratory
value monitored?
A. Potassium
B. Troponin
C. Amylase
D. Bilirubin only
,Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia and other
electrolyte abnormalities.
4. Which medication is commonly used for rate control in atrial
fibrillation?
A. Metoprolol
B. Amoxicillin
C. Omeprazole
D. Levothyroxine
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta blockers such as metoprolol can reduce ventricular rate
in atrial fibrillation.
5. A patient taking a beta blocker should be monitored for:
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Hyperglycemia exclusively
C. Severe hypercalcemia
D. Polycythemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta blockade reduces heart rate and blood pressure.
6. Which medication class can mask adrenergic symptoms of
hypoglycemia?
A. Beta blockers
B. Proton pump inhibitors
C. Penicillins
D. Statins
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta blockers may blunt tremor and tachycardia associated
with hypoglycemia.
,7. A patient taking warfarin requires monitoring of:
A. INR
B. HbA1c
C. TSH
D. Lipase
Answer: A
Rationale: INR is used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
8. Which medication reverses the anticoagulant effect of
unfractionated heparin?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin B12
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
Answer: A
Rationale: Protamine binds and neutralizes heparin.
9. Which medication reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression?
A. Naloxone
B. Protamine
C. Atropine
D. Vitamin K
Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid
effects.
10. Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of:
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Opioids
C. Warfarin
D. Heparin
, Answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.
11. A patient receiving an opioid becomes difficult to arouse with
respirations of 7/min. What is the priority?
A. Administer naloxone as appropriate and support ventilation
B. Give another opioid
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg only
Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening
opioid adverse effect.
12. Which adverse effect is associated with long-term systemic
corticosteroid use?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypotension
C. Severe hypoglycemia
D. Adrenal stimulation
Answer: A
Rationale: Corticosteroids can increase glucose levels and cause
numerous metabolic complications.
13. Why should chronic corticosteroids generally not be stopped
abruptly?
A. Risk of adrenal insufficiency
B. Risk of immediate hyperthyroidism
C. Risk of kidney stones
D. Risk of anemia
Rationales | Wilkes University - Guaranteed Pass
Advanced Pharmacology & Medication Management
1. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops facial swelling and
difficulty breathing. What is the priority concern?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Angioedema
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause angioedema, which may rapidly
compromise the airway and requires immediate intervention.
2. Which electrolyte abnormality is particularly associated with ACE
inhibitor therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibition decreases aldosterone activity and may
increase serum potassium.
3. A patient taking a thiazide diuretic should have which laboratory
value monitored?
A. Potassium
B. Troponin
C. Amylase
D. Bilirubin only
,Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia and other
electrolyte abnormalities.
4. Which medication is commonly used for rate control in atrial
fibrillation?
A. Metoprolol
B. Amoxicillin
C. Omeprazole
D. Levothyroxine
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta blockers such as metoprolol can reduce ventricular rate
in atrial fibrillation.
5. A patient taking a beta blocker should be monitored for:
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Hyperglycemia exclusively
C. Severe hypercalcemia
D. Polycythemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta blockade reduces heart rate and blood pressure.
6. Which medication class can mask adrenergic symptoms of
hypoglycemia?
A. Beta blockers
B. Proton pump inhibitors
C. Penicillins
D. Statins
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta blockers may blunt tremor and tachycardia associated
with hypoglycemia.
,7. A patient taking warfarin requires monitoring of:
A. INR
B. HbA1c
C. TSH
D. Lipase
Answer: A
Rationale: INR is used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
8. Which medication reverses the anticoagulant effect of
unfractionated heparin?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin B12
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
Answer: A
Rationale: Protamine binds and neutralizes heparin.
9. Which medication reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression?
A. Naloxone
B. Protamine
C. Atropine
D. Vitamin K
Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid
effects.
10. Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of:
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Opioids
C. Warfarin
D. Heparin
, Answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.
11. A patient receiving an opioid becomes difficult to arouse with
respirations of 7/min. What is the priority?
A. Administer naloxone as appropriate and support ventilation
B. Give another opioid
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg only
Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening
opioid adverse effect.
12. Which adverse effect is associated with long-term systemic
corticosteroid use?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypotension
C. Severe hypoglycemia
D. Adrenal stimulation
Answer: A
Rationale: Corticosteroids can increase glucose levels and cause
numerous metabolic complications.
13. Why should chronic corticosteroids generally not be stopped
abruptly?
A. Risk of adrenal insufficiency
B. Risk of immediate hyperthyroidism
C. Risk of kidney stones
D. Risk of anemia
