SCI225 Pathophysiology Final Exam Review 2026/202… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
SCI225 Pathophysiology Final Exam Review 2026/2027
UPDATE |Nightingale
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,SCI225 Pathophysiology Final Exam Review 2026/202… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient’s biopsy reveals a change where one adult cell type is replaced by another adult
cell type due to chronic irritation. This is best described as:
A. Metaplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Atrophy
Answer: A
Rationale: Metaplasia is a reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, often as an
adaptive response to chronic irritation, such as in the respiratory tract of smokers. Understanding this
helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often
prevents bigger complications for the client. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and
protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities.
2. Which process is characterized by programmed cell death without the release of
inflammatory mediators?
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Autolysis
D. Gangrene
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is an active, programmed process of cellular self-destruction that does not
typically elicit an inflammatory response, unlike necrosis. Remembering this point will help you decide
the best nursing action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s
current condition and risk level. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to rule
out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority
need.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, SCI225 Pathophysiology Final Exam Review 2026/202… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. In the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS), what is the primary role of
Angiotensin II?
A. Directly stimulating the release of insulin
B. Inhibiting the release of ADH
C. Decreasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys
D. Causing potent systemic vasoconstriction
Answer: D
Rationale: Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that increases systemic blood pressure and
stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. Remembering this point will help you decide the
best nursing action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current
condition and risk level. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when
similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause peaked T-waves on an
electrocardiogram (ECG)?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) affects cardiac repolarization, leadings to narrow, peaked
T-waves, and can progress to fatal arrhythmias. This knowledge supports safe care and helps the
nurse teach the client and family clearly and simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation and reduces
anxiety. Clear understanding of this concept improves both test performance and everyday clinical
judgment. Practice applying it to short case scenarios to lock the idea in place.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
SCI225 Pathophysiology Final Exam Review 2026/2027
UPDATE |Nightingale
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,SCI225 Pathophysiology Final Exam Review 2026/202… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient’s biopsy reveals a change where one adult cell type is replaced by another adult
cell type due to chronic irritation. This is best described as:
A. Metaplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Atrophy
Answer: A
Rationale: Metaplasia is a reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, often as an
adaptive response to chronic irritation, such as in the respiratory tract of smokers. Understanding this
helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often
prevents bigger complications for the client. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and
protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities.
2. Which process is characterized by programmed cell death without the release of
inflammatory mediators?
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Autolysis
D. Gangrene
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is an active, programmed process of cellular self-destruction that does not
typically elicit an inflammatory response, unlike necrosis. Remembering this point will help you decide
the best nursing action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s
current condition and risk level. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to rule
out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority
need.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, SCI225 Pathophysiology Final Exam Review 2026/202… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. In the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS), what is the primary role of
Angiotensin II?
A. Directly stimulating the release of insulin
B. Inhibiting the release of ADH
C. Decreasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys
D. Causing potent systemic vasoconstriction
Answer: D
Rationale: Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that increases systemic blood pressure and
stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. Remembering this point will help you decide the
best nursing action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current
condition and risk level. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when
similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause peaked T-waves on an
electrocardiogram (ECG)?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) affects cardiac repolarization, leadings to narrow, peaked
T-waves, and can progress to fatal arrhythmias. This knowledge supports safe care and helps the
nurse teach the client and family clearly and simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation and reduces
anxiety. Clear understanding of this concept improves both test performance and everyday clinical
judgment. Practice applying it to short case scenarios to lock the idea in place.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
