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CST Certified Surgical Technologist
Exam Prep 2026 | 400+ NBSTSA
Practice Questions with Verified
Answers & Rationales | Complete Study
Guide for Sterile Processing,
Instrumentation, Anatomy &
Perioperative Care | Pass the CST on
Your First Attempt
Are you preparing for the NBSTSA Certified Surgical
Technologist (CST) exam? This comprehensive study guide
delivers 400+ high-yield multiple-choice questions mirroring
the real exam format. Each question includes a verified
correct answer and a detailed rationale to reinforce your
understanding of sterile technique, surgical instrumentation,
anatomy, patient positioning, pharmacology, and emergency
protocols. Perfect for surgical technology students, this
resource boosts confidence and retention. Updated for 2026
testing standards. Pass your CST board exam on the first
attempt with this complete practice Q&A set. Instant digital
download available.
,2|Page
1. Which layer of the skin is avascular and receives nutrients by diffusion from
the dermis?
a) Subcutaneous tissue
b) Reticular dermis
c) Epidermis
d) Papillary dermis
c) Epidermis
Rationale: The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin and contains no blood vessels. It
relies on diffusion from the dermal capillaries for oxygen and nutrients.
2. The surgical technologist is setting up for a thyroidectomy. Which position is
most appropriate for this procedure?
a) Prone
b) Lateral
c) Supine with a shoulder roll
d) Trendelenburg
c) Supine with a shoulder roll
Rationale: A shoulder roll hyperextends the neck, allowing better exposure of the
anterior cervical region for thyroid surgery.
3. Which microorganism is most commonly associated with surgical site
infections in clean procedures?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Bacteroides fragilis
c) Staphylococcus aureus
Rationale: S. aureus is a common skin colonizer and the leading cause of SSIs in clean
surgical cases.
4. What is the proper sequence for donning sterile attire after the surgical hand
scrub?
a) Gloves, gown, mask
b) Mask, gloves, gown
c) Gown, gloves, mask
d) Mask, gown, gloves
d) Mask, gown, gloves
Rationale: The mask is donned first to protect the sterile field from droplets, followed by
the sterile gown, then gloves.
5. A patient in the lithotomy position is at risk for which nerve injury?
a) Sciatic nerve
b) Peroneal nerve
c) Brachial plexus
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d) Ulnar nerve
b) Peroneal nerve
Rationale: Improper stirrup positioning can compress the peroneal nerve, causing foot
drop.
6. Which suture material is a synthetic absorbable monofilament?
a) Chromic gut
b) Silk
c) Polydioxanone (PDS)
d) Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
c) Polydioxanone (PDS)
Rationale: PDS is a synthetic absorbable monofilament that retains strength longer
than Vicryl or gut.
7. The primary purpose of the "time-out" is to:
a) Allow the surgeon to rest
b) Verify correct patient, site, and procedure
c) Check the anesthesia machine
d) Count sponges
b) Verify correct patient, site, and procedure
Rationale: The time-out is the final safety check required by the Universal Protocol to
prevent wrong-site surgery.
8. Which retractor is self-retaining and commonly used for abdominal wall
retraction?
a) Deaver
b) Richardson
c) Balfour
d) Senn
c) Balfour
Rationale: The Balfour retractor has a ratchet mechanism and blades that hold the
abdominal wall open without manual assistance.
9. Normal adult respiratory rate ranges from:
a) 4–8 breaths/min
b) 12–20 breaths/min
c) 22–28 breaths/min
d) 30–40 breaths/min
b) 12–20 breaths/min
Rationale: The normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult is 12–20 breaths per
minute.
10. Which of the following is a contraindication for using a pneumatic
tourniquet?
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a) Peripheral vascular disease
b) Orthopedic fracture repair
c) Total knee arthroplasty
d) Hand surgery
a) Peripheral vascular disease
Rationale: Tourniquets can further compromise blood flow in patients with existing
vascular insufficiency.
11. The suffix "-ostomy" means:
a) Incision
b) Removal
c) Permanent opening
d) Suture
c) Permanent opening
Rationale: An ostomy creates a permanent or semi-permanent stoma, e.g., colostomy.
12. Which solution is most appropriate for surgical skin preparation in a patient
with a known iodine allergy?
a) Povidone-iodine
b) Chlorhexidine gluconate
c) Isopropyl alcohol only
d) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Chlorhexidine gluconate
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is an effective antiseptic that does not contain iodine, making
it safe for iodine-allergic patients.
13. The inner space of a blood vessel or catheter is called the:
a) Lumen
b) Meatus
c) Foramen
d) Sinus
a) Lumen
Rationale: Lumen refers to the hollow interior of a tubular structure.
14. Which medication is the first-line treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
a) Epinephrine
b) Dantrolene
c) Atropine
d) Neostigmine
b) Dantrolene
Rationale: Dantrolene is the specific antidote that reduces calcium release from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum, reversing MH.
CST Certified Surgical Technologist
Exam Prep 2026 | 400+ NBSTSA
Practice Questions with Verified
Answers & Rationales | Complete Study
Guide for Sterile Processing,
Instrumentation, Anatomy &
Perioperative Care | Pass the CST on
Your First Attempt
Are you preparing for the NBSTSA Certified Surgical
Technologist (CST) exam? This comprehensive study guide
delivers 400+ high-yield multiple-choice questions mirroring
the real exam format. Each question includes a verified
correct answer and a detailed rationale to reinforce your
understanding of sterile technique, surgical instrumentation,
anatomy, patient positioning, pharmacology, and emergency
protocols. Perfect for surgical technology students, this
resource boosts confidence and retention. Updated for 2026
testing standards. Pass your CST board exam on the first
attempt with this complete practice Q&A set. Instant digital
download available.
,2|Page
1. Which layer of the skin is avascular and receives nutrients by diffusion from
the dermis?
a) Subcutaneous tissue
b) Reticular dermis
c) Epidermis
d) Papillary dermis
c) Epidermis
Rationale: The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin and contains no blood vessels. It
relies on diffusion from the dermal capillaries for oxygen and nutrients.
2. The surgical technologist is setting up for a thyroidectomy. Which position is
most appropriate for this procedure?
a) Prone
b) Lateral
c) Supine with a shoulder roll
d) Trendelenburg
c) Supine with a shoulder roll
Rationale: A shoulder roll hyperextends the neck, allowing better exposure of the
anterior cervical region for thyroid surgery.
3. Which microorganism is most commonly associated with surgical site
infections in clean procedures?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Bacteroides fragilis
c) Staphylococcus aureus
Rationale: S. aureus is a common skin colonizer and the leading cause of SSIs in clean
surgical cases.
4. What is the proper sequence for donning sterile attire after the surgical hand
scrub?
a) Gloves, gown, mask
b) Mask, gloves, gown
c) Gown, gloves, mask
d) Mask, gown, gloves
d) Mask, gown, gloves
Rationale: The mask is donned first to protect the sterile field from droplets, followed by
the sterile gown, then gloves.
5. A patient in the lithotomy position is at risk for which nerve injury?
a) Sciatic nerve
b) Peroneal nerve
c) Brachial plexus
,3|Page
d) Ulnar nerve
b) Peroneal nerve
Rationale: Improper stirrup positioning can compress the peroneal nerve, causing foot
drop.
6. Which suture material is a synthetic absorbable monofilament?
a) Chromic gut
b) Silk
c) Polydioxanone (PDS)
d) Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
c) Polydioxanone (PDS)
Rationale: PDS is a synthetic absorbable monofilament that retains strength longer
than Vicryl or gut.
7. The primary purpose of the "time-out" is to:
a) Allow the surgeon to rest
b) Verify correct patient, site, and procedure
c) Check the anesthesia machine
d) Count sponges
b) Verify correct patient, site, and procedure
Rationale: The time-out is the final safety check required by the Universal Protocol to
prevent wrong-site surgery.
8. Which retractor is self-retaining and commonly used for abdominal wall
retraction?
a) Deaver
b) Richardson
c) Balfour
d) Senn
c) Balfour
Rationale: The Balfour retractor has a ratchet mechanism and blades that hold the
abdominal wall open without manual assistance.
9. Normal adult respiratory rate ranges from:
a) 4–8 breaths/min
b) 12–20 breaths/min
c) 22–28 breaths/min
d) 30–40 breaths/min
b) 12–20 breaths/min
Rationale: The normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult is 12–20 breaths per
minute.
10. Which of the following is a contraindication for using a pneumatic
tourniquet?
, 4|Page
a) Peripheral vascular disease
b) Orthopedic fracture repair
c) Total knee arthroplasty
d) Hand surgery
a) Peripheral vascular disease
Rationale: Tourniquets can further compromise blood flow in patients with existing
vascular insufficiency.
11. The suffix "-ostomy" means:
a) Incision
b) Removal
c) Permanent opening
d) Suture
c) Permanent opening
Rationale: An ostomy creates a permanent or semi-permanent stoma, e.g., colostomy.
12. Which solution is most appropriate for surgical skin preparation in a patient
with a known iodine allergy?
a) Povidone-iodine
b) Chlorhexidine gluconate
c) Isopropyl alcohol only
d) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Chlorhexidine gluconate
Rationale: Chlorhexidine is an effective antiseptic that does not contain iodine, making
it safe for iodine-allergic patients.
13. The inner space of a blood vessel or catheter is called the:
a) Lumen
b) Meatus
c) Foramen
d) Sinus
a) Lumen
Rationale: Lumen refers to the hollow interior of a tubular structure.
14. Which medication is the first-line treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
a) Epinephrine
b) Dantrolene
c) Atropine
d) Neostigmine
b) Dantrolene
Rationale: Dantrolene is the specific antidote that reduces calcium release from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum, reversing MH.
