HESI OB/ MATERNITY EXAM NEWEST
2026 ACTUAL EXAM| OB/ MATERTITY
HESI WITH COMPLETE 200 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED
A+/GURANTEED PASS/INSTANT
DOWNLOAD
Question 1: Epidural Anesthesia Complication
Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is
administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from
120/80 to 90/60. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately
B. Continue to assess the blood pressure q5 minutes
C. Place the woman in a lateral position
D. Turn off the continuous epidural infusion
Correct Answer & Rationale: C. Place the woman in a lateral
position.
The priority action is to improve perfusion. Turning the client to a
lateral position displaces the gravid uterus off the inferior vena
cava, which improves venous return and cardiac output. This is the
immediate, independent nursing action to treat the hypotension .
While notifying the anesthesiologist (A) and turning off the
infusion (D) may be necessary, repositioning is the first step.
,Question 2: High-Risk Pregnancy Assessment
A client at 34 weeks gestation with preeclampsia has a blood
pressure of 172/112 mmHg, +2 proteinuria, facial and hand
swelling, and complains of a severe frontal headache and blurry
vision. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A. Clonidine hydrochloride
B. Carbamazepine
C. Furosemide
D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer & Rationale: D. Magnesium sulfate.
This client is exhibiting signs of severe preeclampsia (severe
hypertension, headache, visual disturbances). Magnesium sulfate
is the standard of care to prevent seizures (eclampsia). It acts as a
central nervous system depressant and is the priority intervention
for this patient .
Question 3: Preterm Labor Intervention
The nurse is planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation who
is experiencing preterm labor. What maternal prescription is most
important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory
distress syndrome?
A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12 mg deep IM
B. Butorphanol 1 mg IV push PRN pain
,C. Ampicillin 1 Gram IV push q8h
D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3
Correct Answer & Rationale: A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12
mg deep IM.
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid administered to the mother to
accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory
distress syndrome (RDS) in a preterm infant. It is most effective if
given at least 24 hours before delivery and is a key intervention
for preterm labor between 24 and 34 weeks gestation .
Question 4: Newborn Assessment and Care
A newborn has a positive Coombs test and an elevated bilirubin
level. The nurse should anticipate which intervention?
A. Phototherapy
B. Immediate exchange transfusion
C. No intervention is needed
D. Discharge with home care instructions
Correct Answer & Rationale: A. Phototherapy.
A positive Coombs test indicates maternal-fetal blood
incompatibility (e.g., Rh or ABO), leading to hemolysis and an
increased risk of hyperbilirubinemia. Phototherapy is the first-line,
non-invasive treatment to break down bilirubin in the skin,
preventing kernicterus. An exchange transfusion (B) is reserved for
severe cases that do not respond to phototherapy .
, Question 5: Postpartum Assessment
A postpartum client on day 2 has a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
What is the most likely cause?
A. A postpartum infection requiring antibiotics
B. Normal postpartum diuresis and dehydration
C. Breast engorgement or a normal inflammatory response
D. An indication for immediate surgical intervention
Correct Answer & Rationale: C. Breast engorgement or a
normal inflammatory response.
A low-grade fever (up to 100.4°F or 38°C) in the first 24 hours
postpartum is often considered normal and can be related to
dehydration from labor or the onset of breast engorgement. A
temperature greater than 100.4°F after the first 24 hours or a fever
accompanied by other symptoms like uterine tenderness or foul-
smelling lochia is more indicative of infection .
Question 6
A primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is receiving oxytocin
(Pitocin) for induction of labor. The fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing
shows late decelerations. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
B. Position the client on her left side
C. Prepare for an immediate cesarean delivery
D. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Correct Answer: B. Position the client on her left side
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency.
The first action is to improve uterine blood flow by turning the
client to the left lateral position. Oxygen (10–12 L/min via non-
rebreather mask) and stopping the oxytocin are next steps.
2026 ACTUAL EXAM| OB/ MATERTITY
HESI WITH COMPLETE 200 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED
A+/GURANTEED PASS/INSTANT
DOWNLOAD
Question 1: Epidural Anesthesia Complication
Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is
administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from
120/80 to 90/60. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately
B. Continue to assess the blood pressure q5 minutes
C. Place the woman in a lateral position
D. Turn off the continuous epidural infusion
Correct Answer & Rationale: C. Place the woman in a lateral
position.
The priority action is to improve perfusion. Turning the client to a
lateral position displaces the gravid uterus off the inferior vena
cava, which improves venous return and cardiac output. This is the
immediate, independent nursing action to treat the hypotension .
While notifying the anesthesiologist (A) and turning off the
infusion (D) may be necessary, repositioning is the first step.
,Question 2: High-Risk Pregnancy Assessment
A client at 34 weeks gestation with preeclampsia has a blood
pressure of 172/112 mmHg, +2 proteinuria, facial and hand
swelling, and complains of a severe frontal headache and blurry
vision. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A. Clonidine hydrochloride
B. Carbamazepine
C. Furosemide
D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer & Rationale: D. Magnesium sulfate.
This client is exhibiting signs of severe preeclampsia (severe
hypertension, headache, visual disturbances). Magnesium sulfate
is the standard of care to prevent seizures (eclampsia). It acts as a
central nervous system depressant and is the priority intervention
for this patient .
Question 3: Preterm Labor Intervention
The nurse is planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation who
is experiencing preterm labor. What maternal prescription is most
important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory
distress syndrome?
A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12 mg deep IM
B. Butorphanol 1 mg IV push PRN pain
,C. Ampicillin 1 Gram IV push q8h
D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3
Correct Answer & Rationale: A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12
mg deep IM.
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid administered to the mother to
accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory
distress syndrome (RDS) in a preterm infant. It is most effective if
given at least 24 hours before delivery and is a key intervention
for preterm labor between 24 and 34 weeks gestation .
Question 4: Newborn Assessment and Care
A newborn has a positive Coombs test and an elevated bilirubin
level. The nurse should anticipate which intervention?
A. Phototherapy
B. Immediate exchange transfusion
C. No intervention is needed
D. Discharge with home care instructions
Correct Answer & Rationale: A. Phototherapy.
A positive Coombs test indicates maternal-fetal blood
incompatibility (e.g., Rh or ABO), leading to hemolysis and an
increased risk of hyperbilirubinemia. Phototherapy is the first-line,
non-invasive treatment to break down bilirubin in the skin,
preventing kernicterus. An exchange transfusion (B) is reserved for
severe cases that do not respond to phototherapy .
, Question 5: Postpartum Assessment
A postpartum client on day 2 has a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
What is the most likely cause?
A. A postpartum infection requiring antibiotics
B. Normal postpartum diuresis and dehydration
C. Breast engorgement or a normal inflammatory response
D. An indication for immediate surgical intervention
Correct Answer & Rationale: C. Breast engorgement or a
normal inflammatory response.
A low-grade fever (up to 100.4°F or 38°C) in the first 24 hours
postpartum is often considered normal and can be related to
dehydration from labor or the onset of breast engorgement. A
temperature greater than 100.4°F after the first 24 hours or a fever
accompanied by other symptoms like uterine tenderness or foul-
smelling lochia is more indicative of infection .
Question 6
A primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is receiving oxytocin
(Pitocin) for induction of labor. The fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing
shows late decelerations. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
B. Position the client on her left side
C. Prepare for an immediate cesarean delivery
D. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Correct Answer: B. Position the client on her left side
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency.
The first action is to improve uterine blood flow by turning the
client to the left lateral position. Oxygen (10–12 L/min via non-
rebreather mask) and stopping the oxytocin are next steps.
