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SRTA Dental Examination Practice Exam
— 100-Question Advanced Practice
Exam 2026 | Questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales | Complete Exam
Prep & Study Guide
1. A patient presents for a Class II composite restoration on a mandibular first
molar. The proximal box extends 1 mm subgingivally, and the gingival
margin is difficult to visualize. Which matrix system is most appropriate for
achieving a predictable proximal contact?
A. Circumferential Tofflemire matrix
B. Sectional matrix with separation ring
C. Clear celluloid strip
D. Preformed pediatric crown
Answer: Sectional matrix with separation ring
Rationale: A sectional matrix combined with a separation ring provides
controlled tooth separation and improved adaptation at the gingival margin,
making it particularly effective for posterior Class II composite restorations and
tight proximal contacts.
, 2. During preparation of a posterior composite, the operator notices that the
enamel margin is contaminated with saliva immediately before bonding.
What is the most appropriate action?
A. Continue because phosphoric acid will remove the contamination
B. Apply additional adhesive over the contaminated surface
C. Re-etch or otherwise recondition according to the adhesive system, then
rebond
D. Place composite directly over the contaminated adhesive
Answer: Re-etch or otherwise recondition according to the adhesive system,
then rebond
Rationale: Salivary contamination can significantly compromise resin bonding.
The contaminated surface should be appropriately reconditioned according to
the adhesive manufacturer's protocol before continuing.
3. A mandibular molar requires a large MOD restoration with cuspal
undermining. Which factor most strongly supports the use of an indirect
cuspal-coverage restoration rather than a conventional direct filling?
A. Presence of superficial occlusal staining
B. Extensive loss of tooth structure and weakened cusps
C. Patient's preference for a lighter shade
D. Presence of a small proximal contact
Answer: Extensive loss of tooth structure and weakened cusps
Rationale: When substantial tooth structure is lost and cusps are structurally
compromised, cuspal coverage can reduce the risk of cusp fracture and provide
more predictable long-term function.
4. A patient has a deep carious lesion approaching the pulp but no
spontaneous pain or lingering thermal sensitivity. What is the most
appropriate conservative approach when the pulp is judged to be vital?
,A. Immediate pulpectomy
B. Complete removal of all dentin regardless of pulpal exposure risk
C. Selective caries removal while preserving the pulp
D. Extraction
Answer: Selective caries removal while preserving the pulp
Rationale: In a vital tooth with no signs of irreversible pulpal disease, selective
caries removal can minimize unnecessary pulpal exposure while maintaining a
biologically favorable dentin barrier.
5. During crown preparation, which finish-line design generally provides the
greatest resistance to marginal distortion for a full-metal crown?
A. Feather edge
B. Knife edge
C. Chamfer
D. No finish line
Answer: Chamfer
Rationale: A well-defined chamfer provides a distinct finishing margin and
adequate space for restorative material while avoiding an unnecessarily
aggressive preparation.
6. A patient has a severely rotated maxillary canine that requires a crown.
Which preliminary step is most important before definitive tooth
preparation?
A. Increase occlusal reduction only
B. Evaluate the proposed path of insertion and available space
C. Remove all proximal contacts
D. Perform gingivectomy routinely
Answer: Evaluate the proposed path of insertion and available space
, Rationale: Rotated teeth can create unfavorable axial contours and undercuts.
Evaluating the path of insertion and restorative space before preparation helps
establish a predictable design.
7. A patient reports sharp pain when biting on a tooth and pain on release.
Radiographs show no obvious periapical lesion. Which diagnosis should be
strongly considered?
A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Cracked tooth
C. Chronic apical abscess
D. Hypercementosis
Answer: Cracked tooth
Rationale: Pain on biting, particularly pain associated with release, is
characteristic of a cracked tooth. The diagnosis should be confirmed with clinical
tests such as bite testing, transillumination, and careful visualization.
8. During endodontic instrumentation, an irrigant accident occurs and sodium
hypochlorite is suspected to have entered the periapical tissues. What is
the immediate priority?
A. Continue instrumentation rapidly
B. Establish drainage through the canal only
C. Control pain and swelling and provide appropriate supportive management
D. Immediately obturate the canal
Answer: Control pain and swelling and provide appropriate supportive
management
Rationale: A sodium hypochlorite accident can cause significant tissue injury.
Immediate management focuses on limiting further injury, controlling pain and
swelling, and monitoring the patient closely.
SRTA Dental Examination Practice Exam
— 100-Question Advanced Practice
Exam 2026 | Questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales | Complete Exam
Prep & Study Guide
1. A patient presents for a Class II composite restoration on a mandibular first
molar. The proximal box extends 1 mm subgingivally, and the gingival
margin is difficult to visualize. Which matrix system is most appropriate for
achieving a predictable proximal contact?
A. Circumferential Tofflemire matrix
B. Sectional matrix with separation ring
C. Clear celluloid strip
D. Preformed pediatric crown
Answer: Sectional matrix with separation ring
Rationale: A sectional matrix combined with a separation ring provides
controlled tooth separation and improved adaptation at the gingival margin,
making it particularly effective for posterior Class II composite restorations and
tight proximal contacts.
, 2. During preparation of a posterior composite, the operator notices that the
enamel margin is contaminated with saliva immediately before bonding.
What is the most appropriate action?
A. Continue because phosphoric acid will remove the contamination
B. Apply additional adhesive over the contaminated surface
C. Re-etch or otherwise recondition according to the adhesive system, then
rebond
D. Place composite directly over the contaminated adhesive
Answer: Re-etch or otherwise recondition according to the adhesive system,
then rebond
Rationale: Salivary contamination can significantly compromise resin bonding.
The contaminated surface should be appropriately reconditioned according to
the adhesive manufacturer's protocol before continuing.
3. A mandibular molar requires a large MOD restoration with cuspal
undermining. Which factor most strongly supports the use of an indirect
cuspal-coverage restoration rather than a conventional direct filling?
A. Presence of superficial occlusal staining
B. Extensive loss of tooth structure and weakened cusps
C. Patient's preference for a lighter shade
D. Presence of a small proximal contact
Answer: Extensive loss of tooth structure and weakened cusps
Rationale: When substantial tooth structure is lost and cusps are structurally
compromised, cuspal coverage can reduce the risk of cusp fracture and provide
more predictable long-term function.
4. A patient has a deep carious lesion approaching the pulp but no
spontaneous pain or lingering thermal sensitivity. What is the most
appropriate conservative approach when the pulp is judged to be vital?
,A. Immediate pulpectomy
B. Complete removal of all dentin regardless of pulpal exposure risk
C. Selective caries removal while preserving the pulp
D. Extraction
Answer: Selective caries removal while preserving the pulp
Rationale: In a vital tooth with no signs of irreversible pulpal disease, selective
caries removal can minimize unnecessary pulpal exposure while maintaining a
biologically favorable dentin barrier.
5. During crown preparation, which finish-line design generally provides the
greatest resistance to marginal distortion for a full-metal crown?
A. Feather edge
B. Knife edge
C. Chamfer
D. No finish line
Answer: Chamfer
Rationale: A well-defined chamfer provides a distinct finishing margin and
adequate space for restorative material while avoiding an unnecessarily
aggressive preparation.
6. A patient has a severely rotated maxillary canine that requires a crown.
Which preliminary step is most important before definitive tooth
preparation?
A. Increase occlusal reduction only
B. Evaluate the proposed path of insertion and available space
C. Remove all proximal contacts
D. Perform gingivectomy routinely
Answer: Evaluate the proposed path of insertion and available space
, Rationale: Rotated teeth can create unfavorable axial contours and undercuts.
Evaluating the path of insertion and restorative space before preparation helps
establish a predictable design.
7. A patient reports sharp pain when biting on a tooth and pain on release.
Radiographs show no obvious periapical lesion. Which diagnosis should be
strongly considered?
A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Cracked tooth
C. Chronic apical abscess
D. Hypercementosis
Answer: Cracked tooth
Rationale: Pain on biting, particularly pain associated with release, is
characteristic of a cracked tooth. The diagnosis should be confirmed with clinical
tests such as bite testing, transillumination, and careful visualization.
8. During endodontic instrumentation, an irrigant accident occurs and sodium
hypochlorite is suspected to have entered the periapical tissues. What is
the immediate priority?
A. Continue instrumentation rapidly
B. Establish drainage through the canal only
C. Control pain and swelling and provide appropriate supportive management
D. Immediately obturate the canal
Answer: Control pain and swelling and provide appropriate supportive
management
Rationale: A sodium hypochlorite accident can cause significant tissue injury.
Immediate management focuses on limiting further injury, controlling pain and
swelling, and monitoring the patient closely.
