NUR 206 Exam 2 - Community Nursing Concepts Review | Fortis 2026/2027 Update - 100% Verified
NUR 206 / NUR206 Exam 2 – Community Nursing
Concepts Review | Fortis
Latest Update • 100% Verified Questions & Answers • Grade A
Total Questions: 100 | Cognitive Mix: 30% Recall / 45% Application / 25% Analysis | Suggested Time: ~150
minutes | Aligned with 2026–2027 Community Health Nursing Standards
Section 1: Epidemiology and Disease Prevention (Q1–Q20)
Topics: Epidemiological Principles (Incidence, Prevalence, Morbidity, Mortality, Attack Rates); Epidemiological
Models (Triangle, Web of Causation); Disease Transmission; Levels of Prevention (Primary, Secondary, Tertiary);
Communicable Disease Control; Surveillance.
Q1. A community health nurse is explaining epidemiological terms to nursing students. Which
definition of "incidence" is most accurate?
A. The total number of cases of a disease in a population at a specific time
B. The number of new cases of a disease occurring in a population during a specified time period
**[CORRECT]**
C. The proportion of the population that dies from a specific disease in one year
D. The number of deaths attributed to a disease divided by the number of cases
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Incidence refers to the number of NEW cases of a disease that develop in a population at risk during a specified
time period, capturing the risk of developing the disease. Option A describes prevalence, which counts all existing cases at
a point in time. Option C is a crude mortality rate, and Option D is a case-fatality rate; both are death-based measures,
not incidence.
Q2. During a community health assessment, the nurse reports that 250 people in a town of 10,000
currently have diabetes. Which epidemiological measure does this represent?
A. Incidence rate
B. Attack rate
C. Point prevalence **[CORRECT]**
D. Case-fatality rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Point prevalence is the proportion of individuals in a population who have a disease at a specific point in time,
which is exactly what the nurse is reporting. Incidence would require counting only NEW cases over time, not total
existing cases. Attack rate is used during outbreaks to measure the proportion of exposed people who become ill, and
case-fatality rate measures deaths among diagnosed cases.
Page 1 | Grade A Verified Exam
,NUR 206 Exam 2 - Community Nursing Concepts Review | Fortis 2026/2027 Update - 100% Verified
Q3. At a catered luncheon, 75 of 200 attendees developed gastroenteritis within 24 hours after
eating potato salad. What is the attack rate for this outbreak?
A. 13.3%
B. 26.7%
C. 37.5% **[CORRECT]**
D. 75%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Attack rate is calculated as (number of people who became ill / number of people at risk or exposed) × 100.
Here, = 0.375, or 37.5%. Option B (26.7%) would incorrectly use total population denominator. Option A
misplaces the calculation. Option D confuses the numerator with the percentage. The attack rate quantifies the intensity of
an outbreak among exposed individuals.
Q4. A community health nurse organizes a smoking-cessation education program at a local high
school for adolescents who have never used tobacco. Which level of prevention does this
represent?
A. Primary prevention **[CORRECT]**
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs through health promotion and specific protection
measures like education. Smoking-cessation education for healthy adolescents prevents the initiation of tobacco use and
subsequent disease. Secondary prevention (B) involves early detection and screening, tertiary (C) involves treatment and
rehabilitation of established disease, and quaternary prevention (D) addresses overmedicalization - none apply here.
Q5. Which three components make up the epidemiological triangle?
A. Host, Agent, Environment **[CORRECT]**
B. Source, Mode of transmission, Susceptible host
C. Reservoir, Portal of exit, Portal of entry
D. Pathogen, Vector, Climate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The epidemiological triangle consists of the agent (cause of disease), host (organism harboring the disease),
and environment (external factors that allow disease transmission). Options B and C describe the chain of infection, a
related but distinct concept. Option D lists only specific agent/transmission components. The triangle illustrates the
interplay of factors necessary for disease to occur.
Page 2 | Grade A Verified Exam
,NUR 206 Exam 2 - Community Nursing Concepts Review | Fortis 2026/2027 Update - 100% Verified
Q6. A nurse is investigating an outbreak of Lyme disease in a rural community. Which mode of
transmission is most likely responsible?
A. Airborne transmission
B. Vehicle-borne transmission
C. Vector-borne transmission **[CORRECT]**
D. Direct contact transmission
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lyme disease is transmitted through the bite of infected Ixodes ticks, making it a vector-borne disease where an
arthropod vector carries the pathogen from host to host. Airborne transmission (A) involves pathogens in droplet nuclei,
vehicle-borne (B) involves contaminated objects/water/food, and direct contact (D) requires skin-to-skin contact.
Identifying the correct mode directs prevention strategies toward tick avoidance.
Q7. Which intervention by a community nurse represents secondary prevention for cervical
cancer?
A. Administering HPV vaccine to adolescents
B. Teaching safer sex practices to college students
C. Conducting Pap smear screening clinics for women aged 21–65 **[CORRECT]**
D. Providing palliative care for advanced cervical cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of disease through screening; Pap
smears detect precancerous cervical changes early when treatment is most effective. Option A (HPV vaccine) is primary
prevention since it prevents infection. Option B (safer-sex education) is also primary prevention. Option D represents
tertiary prevention for established disease. Distinguishing these levels is essential for planning appropriately timed
interventions.
Q8. Which statement accurately differentiates quarantine from isolation?
A. Quarantine separates sick individuals; isolation separates exposed individuals
B. Quarantine separates individuals exposed but not yet ill; isolation separates individuals with contagious
disease **[CORRECT]**
C. Quarantine applies only to animals; isolation applies only to humans
D. Quarantine is voluntary; isolation is mandatory
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quarantine restricts the movement of individuals who have been exposed to a communicable disease but are
not yet symptomatic, to see if they develop illness. Isolation separates individuals with confirmed or suspected contagious
disease from healthy individuals. Option A reverses the definitions. Option C is incorrect - both apply to humans. Option D
confuses legal authority - both can be voluntary or mandatory depending on jurisdiction.
Page 3 | Grade A Verified Exam
, NUR 206 Exam 2 - Community Nursing Concepts Review | Fortis 2026/2027 Update - 100% Verified
Q9. A mother brings her 2-month-old infant to the community clinic. According to the CDC
immunization schedule, which vaccines should the infant receive at this visit?
A. MMR, varicella, DTaP
B. DTaP, IPV, Hib, HepB, PCV13, RV **[CORRECT]**
C. Tdap, HPV, meningococcal
D. Influenza, pneumococcal polysaccharide, zoster
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The CDC schedule recommends DTaP, IPV (inactivated polio), Hib, HepB, PCV13 (pneumococcal conjugate),
and RV (rotavirus) at 2 months of age. MMR and varicella are given at 12–15 months (Option A). Tdap, HPV, and
meningococcal are adolescent vaccines (Option C). Zoster is for older adults (Option D). The nurse must know
immunization schedules to provide age-appropriate protection.
Q10. After a cluster of hepatitis A cases appears in a community, what is the nurse's FIRST step in
the outbreak investigation?
A. Implement control measures immediately
B. Establish the existence of an outbreak by comparing current cases to baseline data **[CORRECT]**
C. Formulate a hypothesis about the source
D. Communicate findings to the public
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first step in any outbreak investigation is to confirm an outbreak exists by comparing the current number of
cases to baseline or expected levels for that time and place. Implementing control measures (A) prematurely may waste
resources if no outbreak exists. Hypothesis formulation (C) and public communication (D) come later in the investigation.
Following systematic steps ensures valid findings and appropriate interventions.
Q11. A clinic nurse diagnoses a case of active pulmonary tuberculosis. By what timeframe must
this be reported to the local health department in most jurisdictions?
A. Within 1 hour or immediately **[CORRECT]**
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 7 days
D. Only at the end of the month
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Active tuberculosis is a highly communicable, nationally notifiable disease that must be reported immediately
(within 1 hour) to public health authorities to initiate contact investigation and prevent further transmission. Options B–D
represent delayed reporting that would impede prompt public health response. Each state maintains a notifiable disease
list with specific reporting timeframes; TB is universally classified as immediate reporting.
Page 4 | Grade A Verified Exam
NUR 206 / NUR206 Exam 2 – Community Nursing
Concepts Review | Fortis
Latest Update • 100% Verified Questions & Answers • Grade A
Total Questions: 100 | Cognitive Mix: 30% Recall / 45% Application / 25% Analysis | Suggested Time: ~150
minutes | Aligned with 2026–2027 Community Health Nursing Standards
Section 1: Epidemiology and Disease Prevention (Q1–Q20)
Topics: Epidemiological Principles (Incidence, Prevalence, Morbidity, Mortality, Attack Rates); Epidemiological
Models (Triangle, Web of Causation); Disease Transmission; Levels of Prevention (Primary, Secondary, Tertiary);
Communicable Disease Control; Surveillance.
Q1. A community health nurse is explaining epidemiological terms to nursing students. Which
definition of "incidence" is most accurate?
A. The total number of cases of a disease in a population at a specific time
B. The number of new cases of a disease occurring in a population during a specified time period
**[CORRECT]**
C. The proportion of the population that dies from a specific disease in one year
D. The number of deaths attributed to a disease divided by the number of cases
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Incidence refers to the number of NEW cases of a disease that develop in a population at risk during a specified
time period, capturing the risk of developing the disease. Option A describes prevalence, which counts all existing cases at
a point in time. Option C is a crude mortality rate, and Option D is a case-fatality rate; both are death-based measures,
not incidence.
Q2. During a community health assessment, the nurse reports that 250 people in a town of 10,000
currently have diabetes. Which epidemiological measure does this represent?
A. Incidence rate
B. Attack rate
C. Point prevalence **[CORRECT]**
D. Case-fatality rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Point prevalence is the proportion of individuals in a population who have a disease at a specific point in time,
which is exactly what the nurse is reporting. Incidence would require counting only NEW cases over time, not total
existing cases. Attack rate is used during outbreaks to measure the proportion of exposed people who become ill, and
case-fatality rate measures deaths among diagnosed cases.
Page 1 | Grade A Verified Exam
,NUR 206 Exam 2 - Community Nursing Concepts Review | Fortis 2026/2027 Update - 100% Verified
Q3. At a catered luncheon, 75 of 200 attendees developed gastroenteritis within 24 hours after
eating potato salad. What is the attack rate for this outbreak?
A. 13.3%
B. 26.7%
C. 37.5% **[CORRECT]**
D. 75%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Attack rate is calculated as (number of people who became ill / number of people at risk or exposed) × 100.
Here, = 0.375, or 37.5%. Option B (26.7%) would incorrectly use total population denominator. Option A
misplaces the calculation. Option D confuses the numerator with the percentage. The attack rate quantifies the intensity of
an outbreak among exposed individuals.
Q4. A community health nurse organizes a smoking-cessation education program at a local high
school for adolescents who have never used tobacco. Which level of prevention does this
represent?
A. Primary prevention **[CORRECT]**
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs through health promotion and specific protection
measures like education. Smoking-cessation education for healthy adolescents prevents the initiation of tobacco use and
subsequent disease. Secondary prevention (B) involves early detection and screening, tertiary (C) involves treatment and
rehabilitation of established disease, and quaternary prevention (D) addresses overmedicalization - none apply here.
Q5. Which three components make up the epidemiological triangle?
A. Host, Agent, Environment **[CORRECT]**
B. Source, Mode of transmission, Susceptible host
C. Reservoir, Portal of exit, Portal of entry
D. Pathogen, Vector, Climate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The epidemiological triangle consists of the agent (cause of disease), host (organism harboring the disease),
and environment (external factors that allow disease transmission). Options B and C describe the chain of infection, a
related but distinct concept. Option D lists only specific agent/transmission components. The triangle illustrates the
interplay of factors necessary for disease to occur.
Page 2 | Grade A Verified Exam
,NUR 206 Exam 2 - Community Nursing Concepts Review | Fortis 2026/2027 Update - 100% Verified
Q6. A nurse is investigating an outbreak of Lyme disease in a rural community. Which mode of
transmission is most likely responsible?
A. Airborne transmission
B. Vehicle-borne transmission
C. Vector-borne transmission **[CORRECT]**
D. Direct contact transmission
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lyme disease is transmitted through the bite of infected Ixodes ticks, making it a vector-borne disease where an
arthropod vector carries the pathogen from host to host. Airborne transmission (A) involves pathogens in droplet nuclei,
vehicle-borne (B) involves contaminated objects/water/food, and direct contact (D) requires skin-to-skin contact.
Identifying the correct mode directs prevention strategies toward tick avoidance.
Q7. Which intervention by a community nurse represents secondary prevention for cervical
cancer?
A. Administering HPV vaccine to adolescents
B. Teaching safer sex practices to college students
C. Conducting Pap smear screening clinics for women aged 21–65 **[CORRECT]**
D. Providing palliative care for advanced cervical cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of disease through screening; Pap
smears detect precancerous cervical changes early when treatment is most effective. Option A (HPV vaccine) is primary
prevention since it prevents infection. Option B (safer-sex education) is also primary prevention. Option D represents
tertiary prevention for established disease. Distinguishing these levels is essential for planning appropriately timed
interventions.
Q8. Which statement accurately differentiates quarantine from isolation?
A. Quarantine separates sick individuals; isolation separates exposed individuals
B. Quarantine separates individuals exposed but not yet ill; isolation separates individuals with contagious
disease **[CORRECT]**
C. Quarantine applies only to animals; isolation applies only to humans
D. Quarantine is voluntary; isolation is mandatory
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quarantine restricts the movement of individuals who have been exposed to a communicable disease but are
not yet symptomatic, to see if they develop illness. Isolation separates individuals with confirmed or suspected contagious
disease from healthy individuals. Option A reverses the definitions. Option C is incorrect - both apply to humans. Option D
confuses legal authority - both can be voluntary or mandatory depending on jurisdiction.
Page 3 | Grade A Verified Exam
, NUR 206 Exam 2 - Community Nursing Concepts Review | Fortis 2026/2027 Update - 100% Verified
Q9. A mother brings her 2-month-old infant to the community clinic. According to the CDC
immunization schedule, which vaccines should the infant receive at this visit?
A. MMR, varicella, DTaP
B. DTaP, IPV, Hib, HepB, PCV13, RV **[CORRECT]**
C. Tdap, HPV, meningococcal
D. Influenza, pneumococcal polysaccharide, zoster
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The CDC schedule recommends DTaP, IPV (inactivated polio), Hib, HepB, PCV13 (pneumococcal conjugate),
and RV (rotavirus) at 2 months of age. MMR and varicella are given at 12–15 months (Option A). Tdap, HPV, and
meningococcal are adolescent vaccines (Option C). Zoster is for older adults (Option D). The nurse must know
immunization schedules to provide age-appropriate protection.
Q10. After a cluster of hepatitis A cases appears in a community, what is the nurse's FIRST step in
the outbreak investigation?
A. Implement control measures immediately
B. Establish the existence of an outbreak by comparing current cases to baseline data **[CORRECT]**
C. Formulate a hypothesis about the source
D. Communicate findings to the public
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first step in any outbreak investigation is to confirm an outbreak exists by comparing the current number of
cases to baseline or expected levels for that time and place. Implementing control measures (A) prematurely may waste
resources if no outbreak exists. Hypothesis formulation (C) and public communication (D) come later in the investigation.
Following systematic steps ensures valid findings and appropriate interventions.
Q11. A clinic nurse diagnoses a case of active pulmonary tuberculosis. By what timeframe must
this be reported to the local health department in most jurisdictions?
A. Within 1 hour or immediately **[CORRECT]**
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 7 days
D. Only at the end of the month
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Active tuberculosis is a highly communicable, nationally notifiable disease that must be reported immediately
(within 1 hour) to public health authorities to initiate contact investigation and prevent further transmission. Options B–D
represent delayed reporting that would impede prompt public health response. Each state maintains a notifiable disease
list with specific reporting timeframes; TB is universally classified as immediate reporting.
Page 4 | Grade A Verified Exam
