NSG 6020 WEEK 10 FINAL EXAM / NSG6020 WEEK 10 FINAL
EXAM(LATEST-2026) SOUTH UNIVERSITY () ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND REVISED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (A+
GUARANTEE).
90 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 6020 WEEK 10 FINAL EXAM / NSG6020 WEEK 10 FINAL EXAM(LATEST-2026) SOUTH UNIVERSITY
() ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND REVISED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (A+ GUARANTEE).. It
contains 90 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each
question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying
pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 90 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 6020 WEEK 10 / Nsg6020 WEEK 10 -2026 South University
Actual AND Revised WITH Rationales A Guarantee Advanced Nursing NSG 6020 Comprehensive
Examination Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Health History AND Physical 1-15 Appropriate, Acute, Within, Chronic, Kidney
Examination Techniques
SKIN HAIR AND Nails 16-30 Disease, Severe, Intervention, Study, Anemia
Assessment
HEAD NECK AND Lymphatic 31-45 Appropriate, Chronic, Pressure, Severe, Agent
System Assessment
Respiratory System 46-60 Finding, Appropriate, Chronic, Rather, Disease
Assessment
Cardiovascular System 61-75 Metformin, Finding, Diabetes, Strongly Suggests, Chronic
Assessment
Abdominal AND 76-90 Appropriate, Presents, Severe, History, Acute
Gastrointestinal Assessment
TOTAL 90 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Health History AND Physical Examination
Techniques
Q1.
A patient presents with acute chest pain and ST-segment elevation on ECG. Which
intervention should be initiated within the first 30 minutes of arrival to the emergency
department?
A. Administration of sublingual nitroglycerin B. Primary percutaneous coronary
and aspirin intervention (PCI)
C. Intravenous thrombolytic therapy D. Immediate coronary artery bypass
grafting (CABG)
Correct: B - Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
Rationale:For ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), primary PCI is the preferred
reperfusion strategy if it can be performed within 90 minutes of first medical contact.
Thrombolytics are used if PCI is not available within that window. Nitroglycerin and aspirin are
initial medical therapies, not reperfusion. CABG is reserved for specific anatomical findings,
not as first-line emergent therapy.
Q2.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 32 mL/min/1.73m²) has
persistent albuminuria. Which medication class is preferred as first-line therapy to slow
kidney disease progression?
A. SGLT2 inhibitors B. Thiazolidinediones
C. Sulfonylureas D. DPP-4 inhibitors
Correct: A - SGLT2 inhibitors
Rationale:SGLT2 inhibitors have demonstrated renoprotective effects in patients with diabetic
kidney disease, reducing albuminuria and slowing eGFR decline. Thiazolidinediones and
sulfonylureas do not have evidence for renoprotection. DPP-4 inhibitors are generally neutral
but not preferred for this specific indication.
Q3.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of metformin in the
management of type 2 diabetes?
A. Increases insulin secretion from B. Decreases hepatic glucose production
pancreatic beta cells and improves peripheral insulin sensitivity
Page 3
, Section A - Health History AND Physical Examination Techniques
C. Blocks glucose absorption in the small D. Stimulates glucagon-like peptide-1
intestine (GLP-1) release
Correct: B - Decreases hepatic glucose production and improves peripheral insulin
sensitivity
Rationale:Metformin primarily reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and enhances insulin
sensitivity in muscle and adipose tissue. It does not increase insulin secretion; sulfonylureas
and meglitinides do. It does not block glucose absorption or directly stimulate GLP-1 release.
Q4.
A patient with severe sepsis and hypotension has received 30 mL/kg of crystalloid but
remains hypotensive. According to the Surviving Sepsis Campaign, which vasopressor is
the first-line agent?
A. Dopamine B. Vasopressin
C. Norepinephrine D. Epinephrine
Correct: C - Norepinephrine
Rationale:Norepinephrine is the recommended first-line vasopressor for septic shock.
Vasopressin and epinephrine are second-line agents. Dopamine is no longer preferred due to
increased risk of arrhythmias and lack of benefit over norepinephrine.
Q5.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management for a patient
with acute ischemic stroke within 3 hours of symptom onset, with no contraindications?
A. Aspirin 325 mg orally B. Intravenous alteplase (tPA)
C. Heparin infusion D. Urgent carotid endarterectomy
Correct: B - Intravenous alteplase (tPA)
Rationale:IV alteplase is the standard of care for acute ischemic stroke within 4.5 hours of
onset, provided no contraindications. Aspirin is given within 24-48 hours, but not as initial
reperfusion. Heparin is not recommended for acute stroke. Carotid endarterectomy is for
secondary prevention, not acute management.
Q6.
A patient with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3 is being started on
anticoagulation. Which factor most strongly influences the choice between warfarin and a
direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)?
A. Patient's age B. Presence of mechanical heart valve
Page 4
EXAM(LATEST-2026) SOUTH UNIVERSITY () ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND REVISED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (A+
GUARANTEE).
90 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 6020 WEEK 10 FINAL EXAM / NSG6020 WEEK 10 FINAL EXAM(LATEST-2026) SOUTH UNIVERSITY
() ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND REVISED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (A+ GUARANTEE).. It
contains 90 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each
question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying
pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 90 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 6020 WEEK 10 / Nsg6020 WEEK 10 -2026 South University
Actual AND Revised WITH Rationales A Guarantee Advanced Nursing NSG 6020 Comprehensive
Examination Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Health History AND Physical 1-15 Appropriate, Acute, Within, Chronic, Kidney
Examination Techniques
SKIN HAIR AND Nails 16-30 Disease, Severe, Intervention, Study, Anemia
Assessment
HEAD NECK AND Lymphatic 31-45 Appropriate, Chronic, Pressure, Severe, Agent
System Assessment
Respiratory System 46-60 Finding, Appropriate, Chronic, Rather, Disease
Assessment
Cardiovascular System 61-75 Metformin, Finding, Diabetes, Strongly Suggests, Chronic
Assessment
Abdominal AND 76-90 Appropriate, Presents, Severe, History, Acute
Gastrointestinal Assessment
TOTAL 90 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Health History AND Physical Examination
Techniques
Q1.
A patient presents with acute chest pain and ST-segment elevation on ECG. Which
intervention should be initiated within the first 30 minutes of arrival to the emergency
department?
A. Administration of sublingual nitroglycerin B. Primary percutaneous coronary
and aspirin intervention (PCI)
C. Intravenous thrombolytic therapy D. Immediate coronary artery bypass
grafting (CABG)
Correct: B - Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
Rationale:For ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), primary PCI is the preferred
reperfusion strategy if it can be performed within 90 minutes of first medical contact.
Thrombolytics are used if PCI is not available within that window. Nitroglycerin and aspirin are
initial medical therapies, not reperfusion. CABG is reserved for specific anatomical findings,
not as first-line emergent therapy.
Q2.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 32 mL/min/1.73m²) has
persistent albuminuria. Which medication class is preferred as first-line therapy to slow
kidney disease progression?
A. SGLT2 inhibitors B. Thiazolidinediones
C. Sulfonylureas D. DPP-4 inhibitors
Correct: A - SGLT2 inhibitors
Rationale:SGLT2 inhibitors have demonstrated renoprotective effects in patients with diabetic
kidney disease, reducing albuminuria and slowing eGFR decline. Thiazolidinediones and
sulfonylureas do not have evidence for renoprotection. DPP-4 inhibitors are generally neutral
but not preferred for this specific indication.
Q3.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of metformin in the
management of type 2 diabetes?
A. Increases insulin secretion from B. Decreases hepatic glucose production
pancreatic beta cells and improves peripheral insulin sensitivity
Page 3
, Section A - Health History AND Physical Examination Techniques
C. Blocks glucose absorption in the small D. Stimulates glucagon-like peptide-1
intestine (GLP-1) release
Correct: B - Decreases hepatic glucose production and improves peripheral insulin
sensitivity
Rationale:Metformin primarily reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and enhances insulin
sensitivity in muscle and adipose tissue. It does not increase insulin secretion; sulfonylureas
and meglitinides do. It does not block glucose absorption or directly stimulate GLP-1 release.
Q4.
A patient with severe sepsis and hypotension has received 30 mL/kg of crystalloid but
remains hypotensive. According to the Surviving Sepsis Campaign, which vasopressor is
the first-line agent?
A. Dopamine B. Vasopressin
C. Norepinephrine D. Epinephrine
Correct: C - Norepinephrine
Rationale:Norepinephrine is the recommended first-line vasopressor for septic shock.
Vasopressin and epinephrine are second-line agents. Dopamine is no longer preferred due to
increased risk of arrhythmias and lack of benefit over norepinephrine.
Q5.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management for a patient
with acute ischemic stroke within 3 hours of symptom onset, with no contraindications?
A. Aspirin 325 mg orally B. Intravenous alteplase (tPA)
C. Heparin infusion D. Urgent carotid endarterectomy
Correct: B - Intravenous alteplase (tPA)
Rationale:IV alteplase is the standard of care for acute ischemic stroke within 4.5 hours of
onset, provided no contraindications. Aspirin is given within 24-48 hours, but not as initial
reperfusion. Heparin is not recommended for acute stroke. Carotid endarterectomy is for
secondary prevention, not acute management.
Q6.
A patient with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3 is being started on
anticoagulation. Which factor most strongly influences the choice between warfarin and a
direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)?
A. Patient's age B. Presence of mechanical heart valve
Page 4
