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NURS 5663 PHARMACOLOGY WEEK 5: ANTI-INFECTIVE THERAPY QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

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NURS 5663 PHARMACOLOGY WEEK 5: ANTI-INFECTIVE THERAPY QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

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NURS 5663 PHARMACOLOGY WEEK 5:
ANTI-INFECTIVE THERAPY
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS


1. A patient is prescribed Penicillin G for a severe streptococcal infection. Which mechanism

best describes how this medication works?

A. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit


B. Interference with bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins

(PBPs)


C. Disruption of DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase


D. Antagonism of folate synthesis via inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Penicillins are beta-lactam antibiotics that work by inhibiting

the final step of bacterial cell wall synthesis. They bind to PBPs, which are enzymes

involved in cross-linking peptidoglycan strands, leading to cell lysis and death.


2. Which cephalosporin generation is most effective against MRSA (Methicillin-resistant

Staphylococcus aureus)?

A. First generation (e.g., Cefazolin)


B. Third generation (e.g., Ceftriaxone)

,C. Fourth generation (e.g., Cefepime)


D. Fifth generation (e.g., Ceftaroline)


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Ceftaroline is a fifth-generation cephalosporin and is currently

the only beta-lactam antibiotic with clinical activity against MRSA due to its high affinity for

PBP2a.


3. A patient on Vancomycin therapy develops a rapid onset of flushing, rash, and pruritus on

the face and neck. What is the most likely cause and appropriate intervention?

A. Red Man Syndrome; slow the infusion rate and consider antihistamines


B. Anaphylaxis; stop the infusion and administer epinephrine


C. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome; discontinue drug and admit to burn unit


D. Drug-Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome; monitor for eosinophilia


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-related infusion reaction caused by

histamine release, not a true IgE-mediated allergy. It is managed by slowing the infusion

rate (e.g., over 60-120 minutes) and potentially pre-treating with antihistamines.


4. Tetracyclines are contraindicated in children under the age of 8 and pregnant women

primarily because of:

A. Increased risk of tendon rupture

, B. Permanent discoloration of teeth and inhibition of bone growth


C. High risk of ototoxicity and vestibular damage


D. Potential for severe nephrotoxicity and Fanconi syndrome


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Tetracyclines bind to calcium in developing teeth and bones,

leading to permanent yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth and potential suppression of

long bone growth in fetuses and young children.


5. A patient is taking Ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which Black Box Warning

should the nurse include in the patient education?

A. Risk of fatal hepatic failure


B. Severe QT prolongation and cardiac arrest


C. Profound myelosuppression and anemia


D. Tendinitis and tendon rupture


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Fluoroquinolones, including ciprofloxacin, carry a Black Box

Warning regarding the increased risk of tendinitis and tendon rupture, particularly the

Achilles tendon, especially in older adults and those taking corticosteroids.

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