N205/N206 Exam 8 Review Web: Nursing III N205/N206 Exam 1–12 Due –
Complete Actual Exam Questions 250 Multiple Choice Questions &
Rationales for Maternal-Child Nursing Success
Excel on your maternal-child nursing assessments and clear your clinical milestones
with this complete N205/N206 Nursing III Exam 1–12 comprehensive review package
featuring 250 high-yield questions. This premium preparation guide provides actual
exam questions, 100% verified multiple-choice answers, and detailed clinical rationales
covering obstetrical emergencies, labor and delivery, neonatal interventions, and
pediatric developmental milestones. It is an indispensable study tool for pre-licensure
nursing students looking to compress study time, improve clinical decision-making, and
secure an A+ grade.
A comprehensive, exam-focused question bank covering all key
concepts from Antepartum to Postpartum and Pediatric Nursing.
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation who reports a
sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
• A) Check the fetal heart rate.
• B) Perform a nitrazine test to confirm rupture of membranes.
• C) Assess the color and odor of the fluid.
• D) Notify the provider immediately.
Answer: B) Perform a nitrazine test to confirm rupture of membranes.
Rationale: The priority is to confirm whether the fluid is amniotic fluid. A
nitrazine test turns blue/alkaline in the presence of amniotic fluid. While fetal
heart rate assessment is critical, confirmation of membrane rupture guides
,subsequent interventions. Assessing color/odor is important but comes after
confirmation.
2. A primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is in active labor. Her cervix is
6 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal presenting part is at 0
station. The nurse should identify that the client is in which phase of
labor?
• A) Latent phase
• B) Active phase
• C) Transition phase
• D) Second stage
Answer: B) Active phase.
Rationale: The active phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by
cervical dilation from 4–7 cm and more rapid descent of the presenting part.
0 station indicates engagement. The latent phase is 0–3 cm, transition is 8–10
cm, and the second stage begins at full dilation (10 cm).
3. A newborn has an Apgar score of 6 at 1 minute of life. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse perform?
• A) Continue routine care and reassess at 5 minutes.
• B) Administer oxygen via bag-valve-mask.
• C) Initiate chest compressions.
• D) Prepare for intubation.
,Answer: A) Continue routine care and reassess at 5 minutes.
Rationale: An Apgar score of 4–6 indicates the newborn is moderately
depressed. The nurse should continue routine care, stimulate the infant, and
reassess at 5 minutes. Scores below 4 require immediate resuscitation
(oxygen, compressions, or intubation).
4. A client at 34 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia.
Which finding indicates severe preeclampsia?
• A) Blood pressure 148/92 mm Hg
• B) 1+ proteinuria
• C) Platelet count 90,000/mm³
• D) Mild headache
Answer: C) Platelet count 90,000/mm³.
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is diagnosed with a platelet count
<100,000/mm³, blood pressure ≥160/110, proteinuria ≥5 g/24 hours, or
signs of end-organ damage (e.g., severe headache, visual changes, epigastric
pain). A platelet count of 90,000 indicates thrombocytopenia and severe
disease.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a postpartum client about signs of
infection. Which of the following should be reported immediately?
• A) Lochia rubra on day 3
• B) Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) on day 2
, • C) Uterine tenderness and foul-smelling lochia
• D) Breast engorgement
Answer: C) Uterine tenderness and foul-smelling lochia.
Rationale: Uterine tenderness with foul-smelling lochia is a classic sign of
endometritis (postpartum uterine infection). A temperature of 100.4°F is
within normal limits for the first 24 hours, but persistent fever with uterine
tenderness is concerning. Lochia rubra is normal for the first 3–4 days.
6. A client in preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation is receiving
magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor for which adverse
effect?
• A) Hypertension
• B) Tachycardia
• C) Respiratory depression
• D) Hyperreflexia
Answer: C) Respiratory depression.
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant and
tocolytic. Its adverse effects include respiratory depression, decreased deep
tendon reflexes, and hypotension. The nurse should monitor respiratory rate
and have calcium gluconate (the antidote) available.
7. A nurse is assessing a newborn 24 hours after birth. Which finding
should be reported to the provider?
Complete Actual Exam Questions 250 Multiple Choice Questions &
Rationales for Maternal-Child Nursing Success
Excel on your maternal-child nursing assessments and clear your clinical milestones
with this complete N205/N206 Nursing III Exam 1–12 comprehensive review package
featuring 250 high-yield questions. This premium preparation guide provides actual
exam questions, 100% verified multiple-choice answers, and detailed clinical rationales
covering obstetrical emergencies, labor and delivery, neonatal interventions, and
pediatric developmental milestones. It is an indispensable study tool for pre-licensure
nursing students looking to compress study time, improve clinical decision-making, and
secure an A+ grade.
A comprehensive, exam-focused question bank covering all key
concepts from Antepartum to Postpartum and Pediatric Nursing.
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation who reports a
sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
• A) Check the fetal heart rate.
• B) Perform a nitrazine test to confirm rupture of membranes.
• C) Assess the color and odor of the fluid.
• D) Notify the provider immediately.
Answer: B) Perform a nitrazine test to confirm rupture of membranes.
Rationale: The priority is to confirm whether the fluid is amniotic fluid. A
nitrazine test turns blue/alkaline in the presence of amniotic fluid. While fetal
heart rate assessment is critical, confirmation of membrane rupture guides
,subsequent interventions. Assessing color/odor is important but comes after
confirmation.
2. A primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is in active labor. Her cervix is
6 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal presenting part is at 0
station. The nurse should identify that the client is in which phase of
labor?
• A) Latent phase
• B) Active phase
• C) Transition phase
• D) Second stage
Answer: B) Active phase.
Rationale: The active phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by
cervical dilation from 4–7 cm and more rapid descent of the presenting part.
0 station indicates engagement. The latent phase is 0–3 cm, transition is 8–10
cm, and the second stage begins at full dilation (10 cm).
3. A newborn has an Apgar score of 6 at 1 minute of life. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse perform?
• A) Continue routine care and reassess at 5 minutes.
• B) Administer oxygen via bag-valve-mask.
• C) Initiate chest compressions.
• D) Prepare for intubation.
,Answer: A) Continue routine care and reassess at 5 minutes.
Rationale: An Apgar score of 4–6 indicates the newborn is moderately
depressed. The nurse should continue routine care, stimulate the infant, and
reassess at 5 minutes. Scores below 4 require immediate resuscitation
(oxygen, compressions, or intubation).
4. A client at 34 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia.
Which finding indicates severe preeclampsia?
• A) Blood pressure 148/92 mm Hg
• B) 1+ proteinuria
• C) Platelet count 90,000/mm³
• D) Mild headache
Answer: C) Platelet count 90,000/mm³.
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is diagnosed with a platelet count
<100,000/mm³, blood pressure ≥160/110, proteinuria ≥5 g/24 hours, or
signs of end-organ damage (e.g., severe headache, visual changes, epigastric
pain). A platelet count of 90,000 indicates thrombocytopenia and severe
disease.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a postpartum client about signs of
infection. Which of the following should be reported immediately?
• A) Lochia rubra on day 3
• B) Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) on day 2
, • C) Uterine tenderness and foul-smelling lochia
• D) Breast engorgement
Answer: C) Uterine tenderness and foul-smelling lochia.
Rationale: Uterine tenderness with foul-smelling lochia is a classic sign of
endometritis (postpartum uterine infection). A temperature of 100.4°F is
within normal limits for the first 24 hours, but persistent fever with uterine
tenderness is concerning. Lochia rubra is normal for the first 3–4 days.
6. A client in preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation is receiving
magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor for which adverse
effect?
• A) Hypertension
• B) Tachycardia
• C) Respiratory depression
• D) Hyperreflexia
Answer: C) Respiratory depression.
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant and
tocolytic. Its adverse effects include respiratory depression, decreased deep
tendon reflexes, and hypotension. The nurse should monitor respiratory rate
and have calcium gluconate (the antidote) available.
7. A nurse is assessing a newborn 24 hours after birth. Which finding
should be reported to the provider?
