N205/N206 Exam 8 Review Web: Nursing III N205/N206 Exam
1–12 Due – Complete Actual Exam Questions Multiple Choice
Questions & Rationales for Maternal-Child Nursing Success
Excel on your maternal-child nursing assessments and clear your clinical milestones
with this complete N205/N206 Nursing III Exam 1–12 comprehensive review package
featuring high-yield questions. This premium preparation guide provides actual exam
questions, 100% verified multiple-choice answers, and detailed clinical rationales
covering obstetrical emergencies, labor and delivery, neonatal interventions, and
pediatric developmental milestones. It is an indispensable study tool for pre-licensure
nursing students looking to compress study time, improve clinical decision-making, and
secure an A+ grade.
A comprehensive, exam-focused question bank covering all key
concepts from Antepartum to Postpartum and Pediatric Nursing.
1. A client at 41 weeks gestation is undergoing a biophysical profile (BPP). The
nurse notes a score of 4/10. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
• A) Repeat the BPP in 24 hours.
• B) Prepare the client for induction of labor or cesarean delivery.
• C) Schedule a non-stress test for the next day.
• D) Discharge the client with instructions for fetal kick counts.
Answer: B) Prepare the client for induction of labor or cesarean delivery.
Rationale: A BPP score of 4/10 or less is considered abnormal and indicates fetal
compromise. Delivery is usually recommended. A score of 6 is equivocal (repeat in 24
hours), and 8–10 is normal.
2. A postpartum client who is 6 hours after delivery has a temperature of 100.8°F
(38.2°C). The nurse's priority action is to:
• A) Administer acetaminophen as ordered.
, • B) Encourage oral fluid intake.
• C) Assess for signs of infection such as uterine tenderness or foul lochia.
• D) Apply a cooling blanket.
Answer: C) Assess for signs of infection such as uterine tenderness or foul lochia.
Rationale: A temperature >100.4°F (38°C) after the first 24 hours is concerning for
infection (endometritis, UTI, or wound infection). The nurse should first assess for infection
sources. Acetaminophen may be given but is not the priority.
3. A newborn is 4 hours old and has a respiratory rate of 72 breaths/min with nasal
flaring. The nurse should:
• A) Document this as a normal finding.
• B) Place the newborn in a prone position.
• C) Notify the provider and prepare for respiratory support.
• D) Decrease the room temperature.
Answer: C) Notify the provider and prepare for respiratory support.
Rationale: A respiratory rate >60 breaths/min with nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory
distress in a newborn. The provider should be notified, and the infant may need oxygen,
CPAP, or further evaluation.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is at 34 weeks gestation. Which finding
indicates worsening preeclampsia?
• A) Blood pressure 142/90 mm Hg
• B) Urine protein 300 mg/24 hours
• C) Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
• D) Platelet count 180,000/mm³
Answer: C) Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL.
,Rationale: Normal serum creatinine in pregnancy is 0.4–0.8 mg/dL. A value >1.0 mg/dL
suggests renal impairment, indicating severe preeclampsia. Proteinuria >300 mg/24h and
BP ≥140/90 are diagnostic but not necessarily severe without end-organ damage.
5. A nurse is teaching a prenatal client about warning signs during pregnancy.
Which symptom should the client report immediately?
• A) Mild ankle edema in the evening
• B) Braxton-Hicks contractions
• C) Persistent vomiting with inability to keep food down
• D) Heartburn after meals
Answer: C) Persistent vomiting with inability to keep food down.
Rationale: Persistent vomiting can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and
hyperemesis gravidarum. Ankle edema, Braxton-Hicks, and heartburn are common and
usually not immediately concerning.
6. A newborn's heel stick blood glucose is 32 mg/dL at 6 hours of life. The infant is
asymptomatic. Which intervention is appropriate?
• A) Administer IV dextrose immediately.
• B) Feed the infant breast milk or formula.
• C) Recheck glucose in 4 hours without intervention.
• D) Administer glucagon IM.
Answer: B) Feed the infant breast milk or formula.
Rationale: Asymptomatic hypoglycemia (blood glucose <40 mg/dL but infant is stable) is
treated with early feeding. IV dextrose is reserved for symptomatic or severely low (<25
mg/dL) hypoglycemia.
, 7. A client at 30 weeks gestation is receiving nifedipine for preterm labor. Which
assessment finding is a priority?
• A) Maternal heart rate of 110 bpm
• B) Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
• C) Fetal heart rate 150 bpm
• D) Uterine contractions every 8 minutes
Answer: B) Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg.
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker and vasodilator. It can cause significant
hypotension. A BP of 90/60 is low and requires dose adjustment or discontinuation.
Tachycardia may occur but hypotension is a priority concern.
8. The nurse is assessing a newborn's primitive reflexes. The nurse strokes the side
of the newborn's cheek and the infant turns toward the stimulus. This is known as
the:
• A) Moro reflex
• B) Rooting reflex
• C) Sucking reflex
• D) Grasp reflex
Answer: B) Rooting reflex.
Rationale: The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the cheek or corner of the mouth. The
infant turns toward the stimulus and opens the mouth, facilitating breastfeeding. It
disappears around 4 months. The sucking reflex is different and involves actual sucking.
9. A postpartum client reports sudden, sharp chest pain and shortness of breath on
day 5 after a cesarean delivery. The nurse should suspect:
• A) Pulmonary embolism
• B) Mastitis
• C) Endometritis
• D) Wound infection
1–12 Due – Complete Actual Exam Questions Multiple Choice
Questions & Rationales for Maternal-Child Nursing Success
Excel on your maternal-child nursing assessments and clear your clinical milestones
with this complete N205/N206 Nursing III Exam 1–12 comprehensive review package
featuring high-yield questions. This premium preparation guide provides actual exam
questions, 100% verified multiple-choice answers, and detailed clinical rationales
covering obstetrical emergencies, labor and delivery, neonatal interventions, and
pediatric developmental milestones. It is an indispensable study tool for pre-licensure
nursing students looking to compress study time, improve clinical decision-making, and
secure an A+ grade.
A comprehensive, exam-focused question bank covering all key
concepts from Antepartum to Postpartum and Pediatric Nursing.
1. A client at 41 weeks gestation is undergoing a biophysical profile (BPP). The
nurse notes a score of 4/10. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
• A) Repeat the BPP in 24 hours.
• B) Prepare the client for induction of labor or cesarean delivery.
• C) Schedule a non-stress test for the next day.
• D) Discharge the client with instructions for fetal kick counts.
Answer: B) Prepare the client for induction of labor or cesarean delivery.
Rationale: A BPP score of 4/10 or less is considered abnormal and indicates fetal
compromise. Delivery is usually recommended. A score of 6 is equivocal (repeat in 24
hours), and 8–10 is normal.
2. A postpartum client who is 6 hours after delivery has a temperature of 100.8°F
(38.2°C). The nurse's priority action is to:
• A) Administer acetaminophen as ordered.
, • B) Encourage oral fluid intake.
• C) Assess for signs of infection such as uterine tenderness or foul lochia.
• D) Apply a cooling blanket.
Answer: C) Assess for signs of infection such as uterine tenderness or foul lochia.
Rationale: A temperature >100.4°F (38°C) after the first 24 hours is concerning for
infection (endometritis, UTI, or wound infection). The nurse should first assess for infection
sources. Acetaminophen may be given but is not the priority.
3. A newborn is 4 hours old and has a respiratory rate of 72 breaths/min with nasal
flaring. The nurse should:
• A) Document this as a normal finding.
• B) Place the newborn in a prone position.
• C) Notify the provider and prepare for respiratory support.
• D) Decrease the room temperature.
Answer: C) Notify the provider and prepare for respiratory support.
Rationale: A respiratory rate >60 breaths/min with nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory
distress in a newborn. The provider should be notified, and the infant may need oxygen,
CPAP, or further evaluation.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is at 34 weeks gestation. Which finding
indicates worsening preeclampsia?
• A) Blood pressure 142/90 mm Hg
• B) Urine protein 300 mg/24 hours
• C) Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
• D) Platelet count 180,000/mm³
Answer: C) Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL.
,Rationale: Normal serum creatinine in pregnancy is 0.4–0.8 mg/dL. A value >1.0 mg/dL
suggests renal impairment, indicating severe preeclampsia. Proteinuria >300 mg/24h and
BP ≥140/90 are diagnostic but not necessarily severe without end-organ damage.
5. A nurse is teaching a prenatal client about warning signs during pregnancy.
Which symptom should the client report immediately?
• A) Mild ankle edema in the evening
• B) Braxton-Hicks contractions
• C) Persistent vomiting with inability to keep food down
• D) Heartburn after meals
Answer: C) Persistent vomiting with inability to keep food down.
Rationale: Persistent vomiting can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and
hyperemesis gravidarum. Ankle edema, Braxton-Hicks, and heartburn are common and
usually not immediately concerning.
6. A newborn's heel stick blood glucose is 32 mg/dL at 6 hours of life. The infant is
asymptomatic. Which intervention is appropriate?
• A) Administer IV dextrose immediately.
• B) Feed the infant breast milk or formula.
• C) Recheck glucose in 4 hours without intervention.
• D) Administer glucagon IM.
Answer: B) Feed the infant breast milk or formula.
Rationale: Asymptomatic hypoglycemia (blood glucose <40 mg/dL but infant is stable) is
treated with early feeding. IV dextrose is reserved for symptomatic or severely low (<25
mg/dL) hypoglycemia.
, 7. A client at 30 weeks gestation is receiving nifedipine for preterm labor. Which
assessment finding is a priority?
• A) Maternal heart rate of 110 bpm
• B) Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
• C) Fetal heart rate 150 bpm
• D) Uterine contractions every 8 minutes
Answer: B) Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg.
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker and vasodilator. It can cause significant
hypotension. A BP of 90/60 is low and requires dose adjustment or discontinuation.
Tachycardia may occur but hypotension is a priority concern.
8. The nurse is assessing a newborn's primitive reflexes. The nurse strokes the side
of the newborn's cheek and the infant turns toward the stimulus. This is known as
the:
• A) Moro reflex
• B) Rooting reflex
• C) Sucking reflex
• D) Grasp reflex
Answer: B) Rooting reflex.
Rationale: The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the cheek or corner of the mouth. The
infant turns toward the stimulus and opens the mouth, facilitating breastfeeding. It
disappears around 4 months. The sucking reflex is different and involves actual sucking.
9. A postpartum client reports sudden, sharp chest pain and shortness of breath on
day 5 after a cesarean delivery. The nurse should suspect:
• A) Pulmonary embolism
• B) Mastitis
• C) Endometritis
• D) Wound infection
