ATI PN MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING EXAM
NEWEST EVALUATED PRACTICE EXAM 100
QUESTIONS 2026-2027|ORIGINAL QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS |DETAILED RATIONALES |HINTED
COMPLETE EXAM PREP GRADED A+*INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF*
1.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse
effect of this medication?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypertension
Answer: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary
potassium excretion. The nurse should monitor potassium levels and
observe for weakness, muscle cramps, and dysrhythmias.
2.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen therapy. Which oxygen saturation should the nurse expect as an
appropriate target for many clients with COPD?
A. 70% to 75%
B. 80% to 85%
,C. 88% to 92%
D. 98% to 100%
Answer: C. 88% to 92%
Rationale: Many clients with COPD are targeted to an oxygen
saturation of approximately 88% to 92% to improve oxygenation
while avoiding excessive oxygen administration.
3.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a myocardial infarction. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Anxiety
B. Mild fatigue
C. New-onset ventricular tachycardia
D. Blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
Answer: C. New-onset ventricular tachycardia
Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia can significantly reduce cardiac
output and can progress to ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest.
4.
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing diaphoresis, tremors, and
confusion. Which action should the nurse take first if the client is awake
and able to swallow?
A. Administer regular insulin.
B. Obtain a urine specimen.
C. Give approximately 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate.
D. Restrict oral fluids.
,Answer: C. Give approximately 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate.
Rationale: The manifestations indicate hypoglycemia. An alert client
who can safely swallow should receive a rapid-acting carbohydrate,
followed by reassessment of blood glucose.
5.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolism.
Which finding should the nurse expect?
A. Productive cough with thick sputum
B. Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain
C. Gradual onset of peripheral edema
D. Severe bradycardia
Answer: B. Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain
Rationale: Pulmonary embolism commonly presents with sudden
dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, and sometimes
hemoptysis.
6.
A client who has pneumonia has a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F),
respiratory rate of 30/min, and oxygen saturation of 86%. Which
finding is the priority?
A. Fever
B. Tachypnea
C. Oxygen saturation of 86%
D. Productive cough
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 86%
, Rationale: Hypoxemia threatens airway and breathing and takes
priority over the other findings according to ABC priorities.
7.
A nurse is teaching a client who has asthma about using a prescribed
albuterol inhaler. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I should use this medication every night regardless of symptoms."
B. "This medication will prevent all future asthma attacks."
C. "I can use this medication for quick relief during an acute attack."
D. "I should expect severe sedation after taking it."
Answer: C. "I can use this medication for quick relief during an acute
attack."
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist used
as a rescue medication for acute bronchospasm.
8.
A client with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal
chamber. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Normal lung re-expansion
B. An air leak
C. Fluid overload
D. Tube obstruction
Answer: B. An air leak
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber generally
indicates an air leak somewhere in the system. The nurse should
assess the tubing and connections.
NEWEST EVALUATED PRACTICE EXAM 100
QUESTIONS 2026-2027|ORIGINAL QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS |DETAILED RATIONALES |HINTED
COMPLETE EXAM PREP GRADED A+*INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF*
1.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse
effect of this medication?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypertension
Answer: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary
potassium excretion. The nurse should monitor potassium levels and
observe for weakness, muscle cramps, and dysrhythmias.
2.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen therapy. Which oxygen saturation should the nurse expect as an
appropriate target for many clients with COPD?
A. 70% to 75%
B. 80% to 85%
,C. 88% to 92%
D. 98% to 100%
Answer: C. 88% to 92%
Rationale: Many clients with COPD are targeted to an oxygen
saturation of approximately 88% to 92% to improve oxygenation
while avoiding excessive oxygen administration.
3.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a myocardial infarction. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Anxiety
B. Mild fatigue
C. New-onset ventricular tachycardia
D. Blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
Answer: C. New-onset ventricular tachycardia
Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia can significantly reduce cardiac
output and can progress to ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest.
4.
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing diaphoresis, tremors, and
confusion. Which action should the nurse take first if the client is awake
and able to swallow?
A. Administer regular insulin.
B. Obtain a urine specimen.
C. Give approximately 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate.
D. Restrict oral fluids.
,Answer: C. Give approximately 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate.
Rationale: The manifestations indicate hypoglycemia. An alert client
who can safely swallow should receive a rapid-acting carbohydrate,
followed by reassessment of blood glucose.
5.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected pulmonary embolism.
Which finding should the nurse expect?
A. Productive cough with thick sputum
B. Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain
C. Gradual onset of peripheral edema
D. Severe bradycardia
Answer: B. Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain
Rationale: Pulmonary embolism commonly presents with sudden
dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, and sometimes
hemoptysis.
6.
A client who has pneumonia has a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F),
respiratory rate of 30/min, and oxygen saturation of 86%. Which
finding is the priority?
A. Fever
B. Tachypnea
C. Oxygen saturation of 86%
D. Productive cough
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 86%
, Rationale: Hypoxemia threatens airway and breathing and takes
priority over the other findings according to ABC priorities.
7.
A nurse is teaching a client who has asthma about using a prescribed
albuterol inhaler. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I should use this medication every night regardless of symptoms."
B. "This medication will prevent all future asthma attacks."
C. "I can use this medication for quick relief during an acute attack."
D. "I should expect severe sedation after taking it."
Answer: C. "I can use this medication for quick relief during an acute
attack."
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist used
as a rescue medication for acute bronchospasm.
8.
A client with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal
chamber. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Normal lung re-expansion
B. An air leak
C. Fluid overload
D. Tube obstruction
Answer: B. An air leak
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber generally
indicates an air leak somewhere in the system. The nurse should
assess the tubing and connections.
