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CRISC™ PRACTICE EXAMINATION-CERTIFIED IN RISK AND
INFORMATION SYSTEMS CONTROL 2026/2027 COMPLETE
(150) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
CRISC
Prepare effectively for the CRISC® (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control)
Practice Exam with this focused study resource. It supports review of IT risk
identification, risk assessment, risk response, information systems controls,
governance, and risk management strategies. Use the material to reinforce your
knowledge, practice key concepts, and identify areas that may require additional
study. This resource is suited for IT risk professionals, cybersecurity specialists,
information systems auditors, and candidates preparing for the CRISC® certification
exam.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
DOMAIN 1: IT RISK IDENTIFICATION (Questions 1–35)
Question 1:
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of identifying and
documenting an organization's risk appetite?
A) To establish the maximum acceptable level of risk exposure
B) To eliminate all potential risks to the organization
C) To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements
D) To reduce the cost of risk mitigation controls
Answer: A
Rationale: Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk an organization is
willing to pursue or retain. Establishing it provides a boundary for decision-
making and ensures risk-taking is aligned with strategic objectives. It does not
aim to eliminate all risks (B), and while it aids compliance (C) and cost
management (D), those are secondary benefits.
Question 2:
A risk practitioner is identifying threats to a new customer relationship
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management (CRM) system. Which of the following should be the FIRST step
in the risk identification process?
A) Assess the impact of potential threats
B) Determine the likelihood of threat occurrence
C) Define the system's business objectives and criticality
D) Select and implement appropriate controls
Answer: C
Rationale: Risk identification must begin with understanding the business
context, objectives, and criticality of the asset. Without this foundation,
impact and likelihood assessments (A and B) lack context, and control
selection (D) occurs much later in the risk management lifecycle.
Question 3:
An organization is implementing a new cloud-based storage solution. Which
risk identification technique would be MOST effective for systematically
uncovering risks associated with this change?
A) Delphi technique
B) SWOT analysis
C) Facilitated risk workshops
D) Vulnerability scanning
Answer: C
Rationale: Facilitated risk workshops bring together key stakeholders from
business, IT, and security to brainstorm and identify risks related to a specific
initiative. This collaborative approach is highly effective for new
implementations. The Delphi technique (A) is more structured and
anonymous, SWOT (B) is a strategic planning tool, and vulnerability scanning
(D) is a technical control assessment, not a broad risk identification
technique.
Question 4:
Which of the following is an example of an inherent risk?
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A) The risk remaining after controls are implemented
B) The risk associated with a business process in the absence of any controls
C) The risk that is accepted by management
D) The risk that is transferred to a third party
Answer: B
Rationale: Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists before any actions are
taken to modify it (i.e., without any controls in place). Residual risk (A) is what
remains after controls are applied. Accepted risk (C) and transferred risk (D)
are risk response strategies applied to residual risk.
Question 5:
A risk practitioner is performing a threat assessment for an online banking
platform. Which of the following threat sources would be of HIGHEST
concern?
A) Disgruntled employee with administrative privileges
B) Power outage affecting the data center
C) A new competitor entering the market
D) Outdated operating system software
Answer: A
Rationale: An insider with elevated privileges poses a critical threat due to
their authorized access and potential for malicious or negligent actions.
Power outages (B) are operational threats, competitors (C) are business
threats, and outdated software (D) is a vulnerability, not a threat source.
Question 6:
Which of the following best describes a vulnerability in the context of IT risk?
A) A potential cause of an unwanted incident
B) A weakness in an asset or control that can be exploited
C) The likelihood that a threat will exploit a weakness
D) The amount of harm caused by an incident
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Answer: B
Rationale: A vulnerability is a weakness in an asset, system, process, or
control that could be exploited by a threat. A threat (A) is the potential cause
of an incident. Likelihood (C) and impact (D) are components of risk.
Question 7:
An organization is expanding its operations into a country with a high rate of
cybercrime. The risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus during risk identification
should be on:
A) The geopolitical and environmental threat landscape
B) The cost of cybersecurity insurance in that region
C) The availability of local IT talent
D) The organization's brand reputation
Answer: A
Rationale: When expanding into a new region, understanding the specific
threat landscape, including cybercrime rates, legal frameworks, and
geopolitical stability, is paramount. While cost (B), talent (C), and reputation
(D) are relevant business considerations, they are not the primary focus of
threat identification.
Question 8:
Which of the following is a key output of the risk identification process?
A) A risk register
B) A business impact analysis
C) A control framework
D) A risk appetite statement
Answer: A
Rationale: The risk register is the central document that captures and tracks
identified risks, their causes, potential impacts, and initial risk ratings. A
business impact analysis (B) is a separate process. A control framework (C) is
CRISC™ PRACTICE EXAMINATION-CERTIFIED IN RISK AND
INFORMATION SYSTEMS CONTROL 2026/2027 COMPLETE
(150) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
CRISC
Prepare effectively for the CRISC® (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control)
Practice Exam with this focused study resource. It supports review of IT risk
identification, risk assessment, risk response, information systems controls,
governance, and risk management strategies. Use the material to reinforce your
knowledge, practice key concepts, and identify areas that may require additional
study. This resource is suited for IT risk professionals, cybersecurity specialists,
information systems auditors, and candidates preparing for the CRISC® certification
exam.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
DOMAIN 1: IT RISK IDENTIFICATION (Questions 1–35)
Question 1:
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of identifying and
documenting an organization's risk appetite?
A) To establish the maximum acceptable level of risk exposure
B) To eliminate all potential risks to the organization
C) To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements
D) To reduce the cost of risk mitigation controls
Answer: A
Rationale: Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk an organization is
willing to pursue or retain. Establishing it provides a boundary for decision-
making and ensures risk-taking is aligned with strategic objectives. It does not
aim to eliminate all risks (B), and while it aids compliance (C) and cost
management (D), those are secondary benefits.
Question 2:
A risk practitioner is identifying threats to a new customer relationship
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management (CRM) system. Which of the following should be the FIRST step
in the risk identification process?
A) Assess the impact of potential threats
B) Determine the likelihood of threat occurrence
C) Define the system's business objectives and criticality
D) Select and implement appropriate controls
Answer: C
Rationale: Risk identification must begin with understanding the business
context, objectives, and criticality of the asset. Without this foundation,
impact and likelihood assessments (A and B) lack context, and control
selection (D) occurs much later in the risk management lifecycle.
Question 3:
An organization is implementing a new cloud-based storage solution. Which
risk identification technique would be MOST effective for systematically
uncovering risks associated with this change?
A) Delphi technique
B) SWOT analysis
C) Facilitated risk workshops
D) Vulnerability scanning
Answer: C
Rationale: Facilitated risk workshops bring together key stakeholders from
business, IT, and security to brainstorm and identify risks related to a specific
initiative. This collaborative approach is highly effective for new
implementations. The Delphi technique (A) is more structured and
anonymous, SWOT (B) is a strategic planning tool, and vulnerability scanning
(D) is a technical control assessment, not a broad risk identification
technique.
Question 4:
Which of the following is an example of an inherent risk?
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A) The risk remaining after controls are implemented
B) The risk associated with a business process in the absence of any controls
C) The risk that is accepted by management
D) The risk that is transferred to a third party
Answer: B
Rationale: Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists before any actions are
taken to modify it (i.e., without any controls in place). Residual risk (A) is what
remains after controls are applied. Accepted risk (C) and transferred risk (D)
are risk response strategies applied to residual risk.
Question 5:
A risk practitioner is performing a threat assessment for an online banking
platform. Which of the following threat sources would be of HIGHEST
concern?
A) Disgruntled employee with administrative privileges
B) Power outage affecting the data center
C) A new competitor entering the market
D) Outdated operating system software
Answer: A
Rationale: An insider with elevated privileges poses a critical threat due to
their authorized access and potential for malicious or negligent actions.
Power outages (B) are operational threats, competitors (C) are business
threats, and outdated software (D) is a vulnerability, not a threat source.
Question 6:
Which of the following best describes a vulnerability in the context of IT risk?
A) A potential cause of an unwanted incident
B) A weakness in an asset or control that can be exploited
C) The likelihood that a threat will exploit a weakness
D) The amount of harm caused by an incident
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Answer: B
Rationale: A vulnerability is a weakness in an asset, system, process, or
control that could be exploited by a threat. A threat (A) is the potential cause
of an incident. Likelihood (C) and impact (D) are components of risk.
Question 7:
An organization is expanding its operations into a country with a high rate of
cybercrime. The risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus during risk identification
should be on:
A) The geopolitical and environmental threat landscape
B) The cost of cybersecurity insurance in that region
C) The availability of local IT talent
D) The organization's brand reputation
Answer: A
Rationale: When expanding into a new region, understanding the specific
threat landscape, including cybercrime rates, legal frameworks, and
geopolitical stability, is paramount. While cost (B), talent (C), and reputation
(D) are relevant business considerations, they are not the primary focus of
threat identification.
Question 8:
Which of the following is a key output of the risk identification process?
A) A risk register
B) A business impact analysis
C) A control framework
D) A risk appetite statement
Answer: A
Rationale: The risk register is the central document that captures and tracks
identified risks, their causes, potential impacts, and initial risk ratings. A
business impact analysis (B) is a separate process. A control framework (C) is
