Page 1 of 61
ARTHREX SPORTS IOT EXAMINATION 2026/2027
COMPLETE (150) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
SPORTS
Prepare effectively for the Arthrex Sports IOT Examination with this focused study
resource. It supports review of sports medicine concepts, orthopedic procedures,
surgical techniques, instrumentation, anatomy, and clinical applications relevant to
sports medicine. Use the material to reinforce your knowledge, review key topics, and
identify areas that may require additional study. This resource is suited for orthopedic
professionals, sports medicine learners, surgical staff, and candidates preparing for
the Arthrex Sports IOT examination.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: SHOULDER ANATOMY & ARTHROSCOPY (Questions 1–25)
1. What are the four muscles that make up the rotator cuff?
• A. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Major, Subscapularis
• B. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
• C. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Deltoid
• D. Supraspinatus, Teres Major, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
Answer: B. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
Rationale: The rotator cuff consists of four muscles: Supraspinatus
(abduction), Infraspinatus (external rotation), Teres Minor (external
rotation), and Subscapularis (internal rotation). Teres Major is not part of
the rotator cuff.
2. Which rotator cuff muscle is primarily responsible for initiating
abduction of the shoulder?
• A. Infraspinatus
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• B. Teres Minor
• C. Supraspinatus
• D. Subscapularis
Answer: C. Supraspinatus
Rationale: The supraspinatus is primarily responsible for initiating
abduction of the shoulder (the first 15 degrees). It is the most superior of
the rotator cuff muscles.
3. What does SLAP stand for in the context of shoulder labral tears?
• A. Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior
• B. Superior Labral Anterior Placement
• C. Subscapular Labral Anterior Posterior
• D. Superior Ligament Anterior Posterior
Answer: A. Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior
Rationale: A SLAP lesion is a Superior Labral tear that extends from
Anterior to Posterior. It typically starts at the 12 o'clock position and
extends to the 3 o'clock position, often involving the biceps tendon
attachment.
4. In a SLAP Type II lesion, which structure is detached from the glenoid?
• A. The rotator cuff
• B. The superior labrum and biceps tendon anchor
• C. The inferior labrum
• D. The glenohumeral ligaments
Answer: B. The superior labrum and biceps tendon anchor
Rationale: A SLAP Type II lesion involves detachment of the superior
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labrum and the biceps tendon anchor from the superior glenoid tubercle.
This is the most common type of SLAP lesion.
5. What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?
• A. Posterior dislocation
• B. Inferior dislocation
• C. Anterior dislocation
• D. Superior dislocation
Answer: C. Anterior dislocation
Rationale: Anterior shoulder dislocation is the most common type,
occurring approximately 95% of the time. It typically results from
abduction and external rotation forces.
6. What structure lies close to the inferior aspect of the glenoid and is at
risk during shoulder arthroscopy?
• A. Suprascapular nerve
• B. Musculocutaneous nerve
• C. Axillary nerve
• D. Radial nerve
Answer: C. Axillary nerve
Rationale: The axillary nerve lies close to the inferior aspect of the glenoid
and is at risk during shoulder arthroscopy, particularly when placing
inferior portals or during capsular release.
7. What is the treatment for an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion?
• A. Bankart repair
• B. Remplissage
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• C. SLAP repair
• D. Rotator cuff repair
Answer: B. Remplissage
Rationale: Remplissage is a surgical procedure used to treat engaging
Hill-Sachs lesions. It involves filling the humeral head defect with the
infraspinatus tendon to prevent engagement with the anterior glenoid rim.
8. What does ALPSA stand for in the context of shoulder instability?
• A. Anterior Labrum Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
• B. Anterior Ligament Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
• C. Anterior Labral Posterior Sleeve Avulsion
• D. Anterior Labrum Periosteal Separation Avulsion
Answer: A. Anterior Labrum Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
Rationale: ALPSA is a type of labral tear where the anterior labrum is
avulsed from the glenoid and the periosteum remains intact, allowing the
labrum to slide medially down the glenoid neck.
9. What is the most common site for a proximal humerus fracture?
• A. Anatomical neck
• B. Surgical neck
• C. Greater tuberosity
• D. Lesser tuberosity
Answer: B. Surgical neck
Rationale: The surgical neck of the humerus is the most common site for
proximal humerus fractures. It is located just distal to the tuberosities
and is a common site of injury in older adults.
ARTHREX SPORTS IOT EXAMINATION 2026/2027
COMPLETE (150) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
SPORTS
Prepare effectively for the Arthrex Sports IOT Examination with this focused study
resource. It supports review of sports medicine concepts, orthopedic procedures,
surgical techniques, instrumentation, anatomy, and clinical applications relevant to
sports medicine. Use the material to reinforce your knowledge, review key topics, and
identify areas that may require additional study. This resource is suited for orthopedic
professionals, sports medicine learners, surgical staff, and candidates preparing for
the Arthrex Sports IOT examination.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: SHOULDER ANATOMY & ARTHROSCOPY (Questions 1–25)
1. What are the four muscles that make up the rotator cuff?
• A. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Major, Subscapularis
• B. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
• C. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Deltoid
• D. Supraspinatus, Teres Major, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
Answer: B. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
Rationale: The rotator cuff consists of four muscles: Supraspinatus
(abduction), Infraspinatus (external rotation), Teres Minor (external
rotation), and Subscapularis (internal rotation). Teres Major is not part of
the rotator cuff.
2. Which rotator cuff muscle is primarily responsible for initiating
abduction of the shoulder?
• A. Infraspinatus
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• B. Teres Minor
• C. Supraspinatus
• D. Subscapularis
Answer: C. Supraspinatus
Rationale: The supraspinatus is primarily responsible for initiating
abduction of the shoulder (the first 15 degrees). It is the most superior of
the rotator cuff muscles.
3. What does SLAP stand for in the context of shoulder labral tears?
• A. Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior
• B. Superior Labral Anterior Placement
• C. Subscapular Labral Anterior Posterior
• D. Superior Ligament Anterior Posterior
Answer: A. Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior
Rationale: A SLAP lesion is a Superior Labral tear that extends from
Anterior to Posterior. It typically starts at the 12 o'clock position and
extends to the 3 o'clock position, often involving the biceps tendon
attachment.
4. In a SLAP Type II lesion, which structure is detached from the glenoid?
• A. The rotator cuff
• B. The superior labrum and biceps tendon anchor
• C. The inferior labrum
• D. The glenohumeral ligaments
Answer: B. The superior labrum and biceps tendon anchor
Rationale: A SLAP Type II lesion involves detachment of the superior
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labrum and the biceps tendon anchor from the superior glenoid tubercle.
This is the most common type of SLAP lesion.
5. What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?
• A. Posterior dislocation
• B. Inferior dislocation
• C. Anterior dislocation
• D. Superior dislocation
Answer: C. Anterior dislocation
Rationale: Anterior shoulder dislocation is the most common type,
occurring approximately 95% of the time. It typically results from
abduction and external rotation forces.
6. What structure lies close to the inferior aspect of the glenoid and is at
risk during shoulder arthroscopy?
• A. Suprascapular nerve
• B. Musculocutaneous nerve
• C. Axillary nerve
• D. Radial nerve
Answer: C. Axillary nerve
Rationale: The axillary nerve lies close to the inferior aspect of the glenoid
and is at risk during shoulder arthroscopy, particularly when placing
inferior portals or during capsular release.
7. What is the treatment for an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion?
• A. Bankart repair
• B. Remplissage
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• C. SLAP repair
• D. Rotator cuff repair
Answer: B. Remplissage
Rationale: Remplissage is a surgical procedure used to treat engaging
Hill-Sachs lesions. It involves filling the humeral head defect with the
infraspinatus tendon to prevent engagement with the anterior glenoid rim.
8. What does ALPSA stand for in the context of shoulder instability?
• A. Anterior Labrum Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
• B. Anterior Ligament Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
• C. Anterior Labral Posterior Sleeve Avulsion
• D. Anterior Labrum Periosteal Separation Avulsion
Answer: A. Anterior Labrum Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
Rationale: ALPSA is a type of labral tear where the anterior labrum is
avulsed from the glenoid and the periosteum remains intact, allowing the
labrum to slide medially down the glenoid neck.
9. What is the most common site for a proximal humerus fracture?
• A. Anatomical neck
• B. Surgical neck
• C. Greater tuberosity
• D. Lesser tuberosity
Answer: B. Surgical neck
Rationale: The surgical neck of the humerus is the most common site for
proximal humerus fractures. It is located just distal to the tuberosities
and is a common site of injury in older adults.
