,WGU D446 OA Exam | Adult Health II (2026)
Q&A | WGU
1. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of
the following is the priority nursing intervention?
A) Administer a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)
B) Apply a high-flow nasal cannula at 15 L/min
C) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) nebulizer treatment
D) Place the client in a supine position to rest
Correct Answer: Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) nebulizer treatment
Rationale: In an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority is to rapidly relieve
bronchospasm. Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) are the first-line treatment
for acute symptoms. A high-flow nasal cannula may be needed, but it is secondary to
opening the airway. LABAs are used for long-term control, not acute attacks.
2. A client with COPD has an SpO₂ of 88%. The nurse prepares to administer oxygen.
What is the target oxygen saturation range for this client?
A) 90-92%
B) 94-98%
C) 100%
D) 88-92%
Correct Answer: 88-92%
,Rationale: In COPD, the respiratory drive may be triggered by hypoxia (hypoxic
drive). Administering too much oxygen can suppress this drive and cause respiratory
failure. The target SpO₂ for a patient with COPD is typically 88-92% to maintain
adequate oxygenation without eliminating the hypoxic drive.
3. A client with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) has an SpO₂ of 84% on room
air. Which of the following is the most concerning finding?
A) Wheezing
B) Pleuritic chest pain
C) Copious yellow sputum
D) SpO₂ of 84%
Correct Answer: SpO₂ of 84%
Rationale: An SpO₂ of 84% indicates significant hypoxia and requires immediate
intervention with oxygen therapy. While the other symptoms are concerning and
require intervention, hypoxia poses the most immediate threat to life and aligns with
the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework.
4. A nurse is teaching a client with COPD about dietary management. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A) "Eat three large, high-carbohydrate meals daily."
B) "Drink fluids only with meals to avoid bloating."
C) "Eat small, frequent, high-protein, high-calorie meals."
D) "Avoid protein to reduce metabolic demand."
Correct Answer: "Eat small, frequent, high-protein, high-calorie meals."
, Rationale: Clients with COPD have increased energy needs due to the work of
breathing and often experience early satiety. Small, frequent, high-protein, and high-
calorie meals help meet nutritional needs without causing excessive bloating that can
further restrict breathing.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). Which
finding is MOST concerning?
A) +2 pitting edema in lower extremities
B) Jugular venous distention (JVD) at 45 degrees
C) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)
D) Crackles audible to the midscapular region
Correct Answer: Crackles audible to the midscapular region
Rationale: Crackles extending to the midscapular region indicate severe, widespread
pulmonary edema, signifying imminent respiratory compromise. While peripheral
edema, JVD, and PND are important signs of fluid overload, they are not as
immediately life-threatening as extensive pulmonary edema.
6. A client with infective endocarditis develops sudden left-sided weakness and
slurred speech. What is the priority action?
A) Administer aspirin 325 mg PO
B) Obtain a STAT CT scan of the head
C) Check blood glucose level
D) Reorient the client to person, place, time
Correct Answer: Obtain a STAT CT scan of the head
Q&A | WGU
1. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of
the following is the priority nursing intervention?
A) Administer a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)
B) Apply a high-flow nasal cannula at 15 L/min
C) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) nebulizer treatment
D) Place the client in a supine position to rest
Correct Answer: Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) nebulizer treatment
Rationale: In an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority is to rapidly relieve
bronchospasm. Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) are the first-line treatment
for acute symptoms. A high-flow nasal cannula may be needed, but it is secondary to
opening the airway. LABAs are used for long-term control, not acute attacks.
2. A client with COPD has an SpO₂ of 88%. The nurse prepares to administer oxygen.
What is the target oxygen saturation range for this client?
A) 90-92%
B) 94-98%
C) 100%
D) 88-92%
Correct Answer: 88-92%
,Rationale: In COPD, the respiratory drive may be triggered by hypoxia (hypoxic
drive). Administering too much oxygen can suppress this drive and cause respiratory
failure. The target SpO₂ for a patient with COPD is typically 88-92% to maintain
adequate oxygenation without eliminating the hypoxic drive.
3. A client with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) has an SpO₂ of 84% on room
air. Which of the following is the most concerning finding?
A) Wheezing
B) Pleuritic chest pain
C) Copious yellow sputum
D) SpO₂ of 84%
Correct Answer: SpO₂ of 84%
Rationale: An SpO₂ of 84% indicates significant hypoxia and requires immediate
intervention with oxygen therapy. While the other symptoms are concerning and
require intervention, hypoxia poses the most immediate threat to life and aligns with
the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework.
4. A nurse is teaching a client with COPD about dietary management. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A) "Eat three large, high-carbohydrate meals daily."
B) "Drink fluids only with meals to avoid bloating."
C) "Eat small, frequent, high-protein, high-calorie meals."
D) "Avoid protein to reduce metabolic demand."
Correct Answer: "Eat small, frequent, high-protein, high-calorie meals."
, Rationale: Clients with COPD have increased energy needs due to the work of
breathing and often experience early satiety. Small, frequent, high-protein, and high-
calorie meals help meet nutritional needs without causing excessive bloating that can
further restrict breathing.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). Which
finding is MOST concerning?
A) +2 pitting edema in lower extremities
B) Jugular venous distention (JVD) at 45 degrees
C) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)
D) Crackles audible to the midscapular region
Correct Answer: Crackles audible to the midscapular region
Rationale: Crackles extending to the midscapular region indicate severe, widespread
pulmonary edema, signifying imminent respiratory compromise. While peripheral
edema, JVD, and PND are important signs of fluid overload, they are not as
immediately life-threatening as extensive pulmonary edema.
6. A client with infective endocarditis develops sudden left-sided weakness and
slurred speech. What is the priority action?
A) Administer aspirin 325 mg PO
B) Obtain a STAT CT scan of the head
C) Check blood glucose level
D) Reorient the client to person, place, time
Correct Answer: Obtain a STAT CT scan of the head
