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Nightingale BSN 315 Exam | Pharmacology II Review Q&A (2026/27)

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Nightingale BSN 315 Exam Pharmacology II Review Q&A provides focused preparation with exam-style questions, verified answers, and clear rationales. Covers major drug classes, adverse effects, contraindications, interactions, safe medication administration, cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, neurologic, antimicrobial, and priority nursing considerations.BSN 315 Exam, Nightingale BSN 315, BSN 315 Pharmacology, Pharmacology II Exam, BSN 315 Q&A, Nightingale Pharmacology, BSN 315 review, BSN 315 questions, BSN 315 answers, Pharm II review, nursing pharmacology exam, pharmacology questions, BSN 315 study guide, BSN 315 exam prep, medication safety, drug classifications, pharmacology nursing, BSN 315 practice#BSN315 #NightingaleCollege #PharmacologyII #NursingPharmacology #BSN315Exam #PharmExam #NursingExam #ExamPrep #NursingStudents #StudyGuide #PharmacologyQA #MedicationSafety

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,BSN 315 Exam | (2026) Nightingale College BSN 315 Pharm
II Review Q&A | Nightingale


1. A patient is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. What is the primary mechanism of
action of digoxin?

A) Increases heart rate

B) Inhibits the sodium-potassium ATPase pump

C) Promotes vasodilation

D) Decreases cardiac contractility



Correct Answer: Inhibits the sodium-potassium ATPase pump



Rationale: Digoxin inhibits the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump, which increases intracellular
sodium and subsequently calcium levels via the sodium-calcium exchanger. The
increased intracellular calcium enhances myocardial contractility (positive inotropy).
This improves cardiac output in heart failure.



2. A nurse is administering a medication with a half-life of 4 hours. If the initial dose
is 400 mg, what is the approximate amount remaining after 8 hours?

A) 100 mg

B) 200 mg

C) 300 mg

D) 400 mg



Correct Answer: 100 mg



Rationale: After 8 hours, which is two half-lives (4 hours each), the drug
concentration decreases by half twice: 400 mg → 200 mg (after 4 hours) → 100 mg

,(after 8 hours). Understanding half-life is essential for determining dosing intervals
and predicting drug accumulation.



3. A patient is taking warfarin. What is the primary therapeutic effect of warfarin?

A) Increases platelet aggregation

B) Inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

C) Enhances fibrinolysis

D) Decreases prothrombin time



Correct Answer: Inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors



Rationale: Warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II,
VII, IX, X) in the liver, which prolongs the prothrombin time (PT) and international
normalized ratio (INR). This produces an anticoagulant effect.



4. What is the primary route of elimination for most water-soluble drugs?

A) Lungs

B) Kidneys

C) Liver

D) Skin



Correct Answer: Kidneys



Rationale: Water-soluble drugs are primarily excreted unchanged by the kidneys
through glomerular filtration. Lipid-soluble drugs are more likely to be metabolized
by the liver before elimination. Renal function is a critical factor in dosing many
medications.

, 5. A patient starts drinking grapefruit juice while on a CYP3A4 substrate medication.
What is the expected effect?

A) Decreased drug efficacy

B) Increased drug toxicity

C) No interaction

D) Reduced absorption



Correct Answer: Increased drug toxicity



Rationale: Grapefruit juice inhibits the CYP3A4 enzyme in the intestine and liver,
which reduces the metabolism of many drugs (e.g., statins, calcium channel blockers).
This leads to increased serum drug levels and a higher risk of toxicity.



6. What is the therapeutic serum range for lithium?

A) 0.2–0.4 mEq/L

B) 0.6–1.2 mEq/L

C) 1.5–2.0 mEq/L

D) 2.5–3.0 mEq/L



Correct Answer: 0.6–1.2 mEq/L



Rationale: The therapeutic range for lithium in bipolar disorder is 0.6–1.2 mEq/L for
maintenance therapy. Levels above 1.5 mEq/L increase the risk of toxicity, with
symptoms including tremor, confusion, and renal impairment.



7. Vancomycin is administered for MRSA. What is the preferred route for systemic
infection?

A) Oral

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