NU 155 Exam 3 Medical-Surgical Nursing I (2026) PDF - Galen College of
Nursing Practice Test Bank with Verified Answers
Pass your third foundational clinical milestone with this premium 2026 NU
155 Medical-Surgical Nursing I Exam 3 study bank, precisely tailored for
Galen College of Nursing. This comprehensive PDF resource features
realistic exam questions and verified answers paired with deep clinical
rationales covering perioperative care, fluid and electrolyte imbalances,
acid-base disorders, and immunological defenses. It is the ultimate tool for
pre-licensure nursing students looking to optimize their study time, master
clinical judgment case scenarios, and secure an A+ grade.
1. A nurse is caring for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease
(GERD). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include
in the discharge teaching?
A. Lie down immediately after meals to promote digestion.
B. Increase consumption of peppermint tea to soothe the esophagus.
C. Elevate the head of the bed by 6 to 12 inches during sleep.
D. Wear tight-fitting clothing to support the abdominal muscles.
Answer: C. Elevate the head of the bed by 6 to 12 inches during sleep.
*Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed uses gravity to prevent stomach
acid from refluxing into the esophagus. Lying down (A) worsens reflux;
peppermint (B) relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter and worsens
symptoms; tight clothing (D) increases intra-abdominal pressure.
,2. A client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) reports a burning pain in the
epigastric region that worsens 2 hours after meals. Which of the
following actions is the priority?
A. Administer a proton pump inhibitor.
B. Check the client’s stool for occult blood.
C. Place the client on a clear liquid diet.
D. Prepare the client for an endoscopy.
Answer: B. Check the client’s stool for occult blood.
*Rationale: A burning pain that worsens 2 hours post-meal is classic for a
duodenal ulcer. The priority is to assess for complications like GI bleeding, so
checking for occult blood is the first action. PPIs (A) treat the cause but are
not the priority over assessment. Endoscopy (D) may be needed later.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-gastrectomy. The
client suddenly becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and has a rigid,
board-like abdomen. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer pain medication.
B. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position.
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D. Increase the IV fluid rate.
Answer: C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
*Rationale: Signs of tachycardia, hypotension, and a rigid abdomen suggest a
perforation or anastomotic leak, which is a surgical emergency. The provider
must be notified immediately for possible surgery. Pain meds (A) and fluids
(D) are supportive but not the priority over notification.
,4. A client with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube set to
low intermittent suction. What is the primary purpose of this
intervention?
A. Prevent gastric mucosal ischemia.
B. Administer enteral nutrition.
C. Decrease stimulation of the pancreas.
D. Measure the output of pancreatic enzymes.
Answer: C. Decrease stimulation of the pancreas.
*Rationale: NG suction removes gastric contents and decreases the release of
secretin, which reduces pancreatic stimulation and allows the pancreas to
rest. It is not used for nutrition (B) or measuring enzymes (D).
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis.
Which of the following menu selections indicates that the client
understands the teaching?
A. Fried chicken and mashed potatoes with gravy.
B. Grilled salmon and a side of steamed broccoli.
C. Cheese omelet with a buttered croissant.
D. Cream of mushroom soup with crackers.
Answer: B. Grilled salmon and a side of steamed broccoli.
*Rationale: Cholecystitis requires a low-fat diet to prevent gallbladder
contraction. Salmon and broccoli are low in fat. Fried foods (A), cheese/butter
(C), and creamy soups (D) are high in fat and should be avoided.
, 6. A client with cirrhosis has an elevated serum ammonia level. Which
of the following medications should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A. Furosemide.
B. Spironolactone.
C. Lactulose.
D. Vitamin K.
Answer: C. Lactulose.
*Rationale: Lactulose traps ammonia in the gut by converting it to
ammonium, which is then excreted in the stool, lowering serum ammonia
levels. Furosemide (A) and spironolactone (B) treat ascites/edema; Vitamin K
(D) treats coagulation issues.
7. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatitis A. Which of the following
transmission-based precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Contact precautions.
B. Droplet precautions.
C. Airborne precautions.
D. Standard precautions.
Answer: D. Standard precautions.
*Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Standard
precautions (hand hygiene and gloves when handling body fluids) are
sufficient, with additional enteric precautions often recommended. It is not
droplet (B) or airborne (C).
Nursing Practice Test Bank with Verified Answers
Pass your third foundational clinical milestone with this premium 2026 NU
155 Medical-Surgical Nursing I Exam 3 study bank, precisely tailored for
Galen College of Nursing. This comprehensive PDF resource features
realistic exam questions and verified answers paired with deep clinical
rationales covering perioperative care, fluid and electrolyte imbalances,
acid-base disorders, and immunological defenses. It is the ultimate tool for
pre-licensure nursing students looking to optimize their study time, master
clinical judgment case scenarios, and secure an A+ grade.
1. A nurse is caring for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease
(GERD). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include
in the discharge teaching?
A. Lie down immediately after meals to promote digestion.
B. Increase consumption of peppermint tea to soothe the esophagus.
C. Elevate the head of the bed by 6 to 12 inches during sleep.
D. Wear tight-fitting clothing to support the abdominal muscles.
Answer: C. Elevate the head of the bed by 6 to 12 inches during sleep.
*Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed uses gravity to prevent stomach
acid from refluxing into the esophagus. Lying down (A) worsens reflux;
peppermint (B) relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter and worsens
symptoms; tight clothing (D) increases intra-abdominal pressure.
,2. A client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) reports a burning pain in the
epigastric region that worsens 2 hours after meals. Which of the
following actions is the priority?
A. Administer a proton pump inhibitor.
B. Check the client’s stool for occult blood.
C. Place the client on a clear liquid diet.
D. Prepare the client for an endoscopy.
Answer: B. Check the client’s stool for occult blood.
*Rationale: A burning pain that worsens 2 hours post-meal is classic for a
duodenal ulcer. The priority is to assess for complications like GI bleeding, so
checking for occult blood is the first action. PPIs (A) treat the cause but are
not the priority over assessment. Endoscopy (D) may be needed later.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-gastrectomy. The
client suddenly becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and has a rigid,
board-like abdomen. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer pain medication.
B. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position.
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D. Increase the IV fluid rate.
Answer: C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
*Rationale: Signs of tachycardia, hypotension, and a rigid abdomen suggest a
perforation or anastomotic leak, which is a surgical emergency. The provider
must be notified immediately for possible surgery. Pain meds (A) and fluids
(D) are supportive but not the priority over notification.
,4. A client with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube set to
low intermittent suction. What is the primary purpose of this
intervention?
A. Prevent gastric mucosal ischemia.
B. Administer enteral nutrition.
C. Decrease stimulation of the pancreas.
D. Measure the output of pancreatic enzymes.
Answer: C. Decrease stimulation of the pancreas.
*Rationale: NG suction removes gastric contents and decreases the release of
secretin, which reduces pancreatic stimulation and allows the pancreas to
rest. It is not used for nutrition (B) or measuring enzymes (D).
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis.
Which of the following menu selections indicates that the client
understands the teaching?
A. Fried chicken and mashed potatoes with gravy.
B. Grilled salmon and a side of steamed broccoli.
C. Cheese omelet with a buttered croissant.
D. Cream of mushroom soup with crackers.
Answer: B. Grilled salmon and a side of steamed broccoli.
*Rationale: Cholecystitis requires a low-fat diet to prevent gallbladder
contraction. Salmon and broccoli are low in fat. Fried foods (A), cheese/butter
(C), and creamy soups (D) are high in fat and should be avoided.
, 6. A client with cirrhosis has an elevated serum ammonia level. Which
of the following medications should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A. Furosemide.
B. Spironolactone.
C. Lactulose.
D. Vitamin K.
Answer: C. Lactulose.
*Rationale: Lactulose traps ammonia in the gut by converting it to
ammonium, which is then excreted in the stool, lowering serum ammonia
levels. Furosemide (A) and spironolactone (B) treat ascites/edema; Vitamin K
(D) treats coagulation issues.
7. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatitis A. Which of the following
transmission-based precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Contact precautions.
B. Droplet precautions.
C. Airborne precautions.
D. Standard precautions.
Answer: D. Standard precautions.
*Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Standard
precautions (hand hygiene and gloves when handling body fluids) are
sufficient, with additional enteric precautions often recommended. It is not
droplet (B) or airborne (C).
