NUR 265 Exam 3 Version 1 and 2 New | Actual Questions
and Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct - Galen
College of Nursing 3 Versions
Excel on your advanced clinical milestone with this definitive 2026 NUR
265 Exam 3 study package featuring both Version 1 and Version 2,
precisely tailored for Galen College of Nursing. This comprehensive test
bank includes actual exam questions paired with 100% verified correct
answers and detailed clinical rationales covering advanced med-surg
concepts, critical care interventions, multi-system organ failure, and
emergency nursing protocols. It is an indispensable resource for pre-
licensure nursing students looking to optimize study efficiency, master
clinical judgment case studies, and confidently guarantee an A+ grade.
Question #1
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of birth (EDB) using Naegele's rule
for a client whose last menstrual period (LMP) was May 15. Which date is
the correct EDB?
A. February 8
B. February 15
C. February 22
D. March 1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from the LMP (May → February)
and add 7 days (15 + 7 = 22), giving February 22. February 8 (A) and
February 15 (B) are incorrect calculations. March 1 (D) does not follow the
rule.
,Question #2
The nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks gestation. The fundal height is
palpated at which anatomical landmark?
A. At the umbilicus
B. Just above the symphysis pubis
C. At the xiphoid process
D. Midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 12 weeks, the fundus is just above the symphysis pubis. At 20
weeks, it is at the umbilicus (A). At 36 weeks, it is at the xiphoid process (C).
Midway (D) would be around 16 weeks.
Question #3
A client at 38 weeks gestation with a breech presentation is scheduled for
an external cephalic version (ECV). Which medication should the nurse
anticipate to be administered to facilitate this procedure?
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Terbutaline
C. Oxytocin
D. Betamethasone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Terbutaline (a tocolytic) is given to relax the uterus during ECV.
Magnesium sulfate (A) is for preeclampsia. Oxytocin (C) stimulates
contractions. Betamethasone (D) is for fetal lung maturity.
Question #4
The nurse is assessing a client in active labor. Which of the following fetal
heart rate (FHR) patterns is most concerning and requires immediate
,intervention?
A. Early decelerations with contractions
B. Moderate variability
C. Late decelerations with no recovery after contractions
D. Accelerations with fetal movement
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and are
non-reassuring. Early decelerations (A) are benign. Moderate variability (B)
and accelerations (D) are reassuring.
Question #5
A client with preeclampsia is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the
following assessment findings indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Urine output of 40 mL/hour
B. Deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) of 2+
C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Respiratory depression (< 12 breaths/min) is a sign of magnesium
toxicity. Urine output > 30 mL/hr (A) is adequate. DTRs of 2+ (B) are normal.
BP 140/90 (D) is elevated but not magnesium toxicity.
Question #6
The nurse is caring for a client with placenta previa. Which of the following
is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Administer oxytocin
B. Perform a vaginal exam to assess dilation
, C. Maintain strict bed rest and monitor for bleeding
D. Encourage ambulation to promote descent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a low-lying placenta; vaginal exams (B) can
cause hemorrhage. Oxytocin (A) and ambulation (D) are contraindicated. Bed
rest and bleeding monitoring are priorities.
Question #7
A client with abruptio placentae presents with a rigid, board-like abdomen
and dark vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the priority nursing
action?
A. Prepare for immediate cesarean section
B. Administer oral iron supplements
C. Apply a heating pad to the abdomen
D. Encourage oral fluid intake
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abruptio placentae is a medical emergency requiring rapid
delivery (often C-section). Iron supplements (B) are not acute. Heat (C) is not
indicated. Fluids (D) are secondary to delivery.
Question #8
The nurse is assessing a postpartum client who is 2 hours after delivery. The
fundus is boggy and displaced to the right. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Document the findings as normal
B. Massage the fundus and have the client void
C. Administer pain medication
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
and Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct - Galen
College of Nursing 3 Versions
Excel on your advanced clinical milestone with this definitive 2026 NUR
265 Exam 3 study package featuring both Version 1 and Version 2,
precisely tailored for Galen College of Nursing. This comprehensive test
bank includes actual exam questions paired with 100% verified correct
answers and detailed clinical rationales covering advanced med-surg
concepts, critical care interventions, multi-system organ failure, and
emergency nursing protocols. It is an indispensable resource for pre-
licensure nursing students looking to optimize study efficiency, master
clinical judgment case studies, and confidently guarantee an A+ grade.
Question #1
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of birth (EDB) using Naegele's rule
for a client whose last menstrual period (LMP) was May 15. Which date is
the correct EDB?
A. February 8
B. February 15
C. February 22
D. March 1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months from the LMP (May → February)
and add 7 days (15 + 7 = 22), giving February 22. February 8 (A) and
February 15 (B) are incorrect calculations. March 1 (D) does not follow the
rule.
,Question #2
The nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks gestation. The fundal height is
palpated at which anatomical landmark?
A. At the umbilicus
B. Just above the symphysis pubis
C. At the xiphoid process
D. Midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 12 weeks, the fundus is just above the symphysis pubis. At 20
weeks, it is at the umbilicus (A). At 36 weeks, it is at the xiphoid process (C).
Midway (D) would be around 16 weeks.
Question #3
A client at 38 weeks gestation with a breech presentation is scheduled for
an external cephalic version (ECV). Which medication should the nurse
anticipate to be administered to facilitate this procedure?
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Terbutaline
C. Oxytocin
D. Betamethasone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Terbutaline (a tocolytic) is given to relax the uterus during ECV.
Magnesium sulfate (A) is for preeclampsia. Oxytocin (C) stimulates
contractions. Betamethasone (D) is for fetal lung maturity.
Question #4
The nurse is assessing a client in active labor. Which of the following fetal
heart rate (FHR) patterns is most concerning and requires immediate
,intervention?
A. Early decelerations with contractions
B. Moderate variability
C. Late decelerations with no recovery after contractions
D. Accelerations with fetal movement
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and are
non-reassuring. Early decelerations (A) are benign. Moderate variability (B)
and accelerations (D) are reassuring.
Question #5
A client with preeclampsia is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the
following assessment findings indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Urine output of 40 mL/hour
B. Deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) of 2+
C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Respiratory depression (< 12 breaths/min) is a sign of magnesium
toxicity. Urine output > 30 mL/hr (A) is adequate. DTRs of 2+ (B) are normal.
BP 140/90 (D) is elevated but not magnesium toxicity.
Question #6
The nurse is caring for a client with placenta previa. Which of the following
is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Administer oxytocin
B. Perform a vaginal exam to assess dilation
, C. Maintain strict bed rest and monitor for bleeding
D. Encourage ambulation to promote descent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a low-lying placenta; vaginal exams (B) can
cause hemorrhage. Oxytocin (A) and ambulation (D) are contraindicated. Bed
rest and bleeding monitoring are priorities.
Question #7
A client with abruptio placentae presents with a rigid, board-like abdomen
and dark vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the priority nursing
action?
A. Prepare for immediate cesarean section
B. Administer oral iron supplements
C. Apply a heating pad to the abdomen
D. Encourage oral fluid intake
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abruptio placentae is a medical emergency requiring rapid
delivery (often C-section). Iron supplements (B) are not acute. Heat (C) is not
indicated. Fluids (D) are secondary to delivery.
Question #8
The nurse is assessing a postpartum client who is 2 hours after delivery. The
fundus is boggy and displaced to the right. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Document the findings as normal
B. Massage the fundus and have the client void
C. Administer pain medication
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
