WGU D444 Adult Health 1 OA Exam – 3-Set Practice
Bundle Newest Update
Format: 200+ exam-style questions with answers and rationales,
organized into three separate practice sets covering the core topics
for the WGU D444 Objective Assessment. Updated for the
2025/2026 curriculum and NGN-style questions.
SET 1: CARDIOVASCULAR & RESPIRATORY DISORDERS
Instructions
- 70 questions covering cardiovascular and respiratory systems
- Select the best answer for each question
- Review rationales to reinforce key concepts
Questions 1–35: Cardiovascular Disorders
1
,1. A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 35%. This
indicates:
A. Preserved systolic function
B. Reduced systolic function (HFrEF)
C. Normal diastolic function
D. Severe valvular disease
Answer: B. Reduced systolic function (HFrEF)
*Rationale: Normal ejection fraction (EF) is 55–70%. An EF of 35%
indicates systolic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
(HFrEF), meaning the left ventricle is not pumping effectively.
Treatment focuses on afterload reduction, diuresis, and inotropic
support.*
2. A patient on amlodipine reports flushing and headache. The
nurse's best response is:
A. "These are expected side effects that often improve with time."
B. "Stop the medication immediately and call 911."
C. "You are having an allergic reaction."
D. "This indicates your blood pressure is now normal."
2
,Answer: A. "These are expected side effects that often improve with
time."
*Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that causes
vasodilation, leading to flushing, headache, and peripheral edema.
These are common side effects that often diminish with continued
use. The patient should be advised to avoid sudden position
changes.*
3. A patient with unstable angina is prescribed clopidogrel. Which
teaching point is most important?
A. "Take with grapefruit juice to increase absorption."
B. "Notify the provider if you notice black, tarry stools."
C. "This medication will dissolve any existing clots."
D. "You will not need aspirin while taking this."
Answer: B. "Notify the provider if you notice black, tarry stools."
*Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases
the risk of bleeding. Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal
bleeding and require immediate medical attention. Aspirin is
typically continued in combination therapy.*
3
, 4. A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 210/120 and
reports severe headache and blurred vision. The nurse recognizes
this as:
A. Benign hypertension
B. Hypertensive crisis with target organ damage
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Medication non-adherence
Answer: B. Hypertensive crisis with target organ damage
*Rationale: Severe hypertension (SBP >180 or DBP >120) with
neurological symptoms such as headache and blurred vision
indicates a hypertensive emergency requiring immediate treatment
to prevent target organ damage. IV antihypertensives and close
monitoring are required.*
5. A patient post-cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery has a
femoral sheath in place. The nurse finds the site bleeding. The
priority action is:
A. Apply firm pressure 1-2 inches above the insertion site
B. Remove the sheath immediately
C. Apply a sandbag to the site
4
Bundle Newest Update
Format: 200+ exam-style questions with answers and rationales,
organized into three separate practice sets covering the core topics
for the WGU D444 Objective Assessment. Updated for the
2025/2026 curriculum and NGN-style questions.
SET 1: CARDIOVASCULAR & RESPIRATORY DISORDERS
Instructions
- 70 questions covering cardiovascular and respiratory systems
- Select the best answer for each question
- Review rationales to reinforce key concepts
Questions 1–35: Cardiovascular Disorders
1
,1. A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 35%. This
indicates:
A. Preserved systolic function
B. Reduced systolic function (HFrEF)
C. Normal diastolic function
D. Severe valvular disease
Answer: B. Reduced systolic function (HFrEF)
*Rationale: Normal ejection fraction (EF) is 55–70%. An EF of 35%
indicates systolic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
(HFrEF), meaning the left ventricle is not pumping effectively.
Treatment focuses on afterload reduction, diuresis, and inotropic
support.*
2. A patient on amlodipine reports flushing and headache. The
nurse's best response is:
A. "These are expected side effects that often improve with time."
B. "Stop the medication immediately and call 911."
C. "You are having an allergic reaction."
D. "This indicates your blood pressure is now normal."
2
,Answer: A. "These are expected side effects that often improve with
time."
*Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that causes
vasodilation, leading to flushing, headache, and peripheral edema.
These are common side effects that often diminish with continued
use. The patient should be advised to avoid sudden position
changes.*
3. A patient with unstable angina is prescribed clopidogrel. Which
teaching point is most important?
A. "Take with grapefruit juice to increase absorption."
B. "Notify the provider if you notice black, tarry stools."
C. "This medication will dissolve any existing clots."
D. "You will not need aspirin while taking this."
Answer: B. "Notify the provider if you notice black, tarry stools."
*Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases
the risk of bleeding. Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal
bleeding and require immediate medical attention. Aspirin is
typically continued in combination therapy.*
3
, 4. A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 210/120 and
reports severe headache and blurred vision. The nurse recognizes
this as:
A. Benign hypertension
B. Hypertensive crisis with target organ damage
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Medication non-adherence
Answer: B. Hypertensive crisis with target organ damage
*Rationale: Severe hypertension (SBP >180 or DBP >120) with
neurological symptoms such as headache and blurred vision
indicates a hypertensive emergency requiring immediate treatment
to prevent target organ damage. IV antihypertensives and close
monitoring are required.*
5. A patient post-cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery has a
femoral sheath in place. The nurse finds the site bleeding. The
priority action is:
A. Apply firm pressure 1-2 inches above the insertion site
B. Remove the sheath immediately
C. Apply a sandbag to the site
4
