Final Exam: NR569 / NR 569 (Latest
Update)
Differential Diagnosis in Acute Care Practicum Exam Review
Week 5 - 8 | Questions and Verified Answers | 110 Questions Total
Cognitive Distribution: 20% Recall | 45% Application | 35% Analysis | Format: 85% Scenario-Based with NGN
Integration | 15% Direct Recall
Chamberlain College Final Examination Blueprint | NGN Clinical Judgment Model
Section 1: Advanced Diagnostic Reasoning and Clinical Decision-Making
Hypothesis Testing, Pattern Recognition, Diagnostic Errors, and Clinical Algorithms (Q1-Q15)
Q1: A 72-year-old female presents to the acute care clinic with acute onset confusion, urinary frequency,
and low-grade fever. Her daughter reports she has been "forgetting things all morning." Vitals: T 38.1°C,
HR 102, BP 124/78, RR 18, SpO2 96%. Using the NGN Clinical Judgment Model, the AGACNP first
recognizes cues from the presenting symptoms. Which hypothesis should the AGACNP prioritize as most
plausible given the atypical presentation in this elderly patient?
A. Acute ischemic stroke given the confusion and cognitive changes
B. Urinary tract infection with subsequent delirium superimposed on possible baseline cognitive
impairment [CORRECT]
C. Sepsis from a pulmonary source requiring immediate broad-spectrum antibiotics
D. Acute hypoactive hyperthyroidism precipitating thyroid storm with altered mental status
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elderly patients frequently present atypically, and UTI is one of the most common reversible causes of
acute delirium in this population, manifesting with cognitive changes rather than classic dysuria. Acute stroke is less
likely without focal neurologic deficits, and thyroid storm typically presents with hyperthermia, tachycardia out of
proportion to fever, and agitation rather than lethargy. Sepsis is premature without evidence of hypotension, elevated
lactate, or end-organ hypoperfusion. The AGACNP should analyze cues by recognizing that confusion in the elderly
is a red flag requiring reversible cause workup, prioritizing UTI as the leading hypothesis while maintaining a
differential diagnosis that includes metabolic and structural etiologies.
Q2: A 55-year-old male presents with substernal chest pressure radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and
dyspnea that began 30 minutes ago while shoveling snow. PMH: hypertension, hyperlipidemia, type 2
diabetes. The AGACNP recognizes this as a classic pattern of ACS. Which diagnostic reasoning process is
most responsible for rapid identification of this high-risk presentation?
A. Analytic (hypothetico-deductive) reasoning requiring systematic testing of multiple hypotheses
B. Pattern recognition (System 1 thinking) based on illness scripts acquired through clinical
experience [CORRECT]
C. Bayesian probabilistic reasoning using pre-test probability and likelihood ratios
D. Diagnostic algorithms applied step-by-step from a chest pain clinical decision tool
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Pattern recognition, or System 1 intuitive thinking, allows experienced clinicians to rapidly match a
presentation to a stored illness script—a cognitive template built from repeated clinical exposure. The classic
presentation of ACS (substernal pressure, radiation to left arm, diaphoresis, exertional onset, cardiac risk factors)
represents a prototypical pattern requiring rapid activation of the ACS pathway. Analytic reasoning (System 2) is
slower and used for ambiguous or atypical presentations. Bayesian reasoning supports test interpretation but is not the
primary mechanism for initial pattern matching. Algorithms operationalize management but do not replace the
recognition step. The AGACNP must remain alert to anchoring bias when using System 1, deliberately
cross-checking for atypical features that would shift the diagnosis away from ACS.
Q3: A 48-year-old female presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain after eating fried food. The
AGACNP diagnoses biliary colic based on the classic presentation, but the patient returns 12 hours later
with persistent fever, worsening pain, and Murphy sign positive. The initial diagnosis represented
premature closure. Which statement best describes premature closure as a cognitive diagnostic error?
A. The clinician relies on the first piece of information received, ignoring subsequent data
B. The clinician stops considering alternative diagnoses once an initial diagnosis is accepted, failing to
verify or update it [CORRECT]
C. The clinician overestimates the prevalence of a rare diagnosis based on a recent memorable case
D. The clinician attributes the patient symptoms to a previously known condition without new evaluation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Premature closure is the cognitive error of accepting a diagnosis before it has been fully verified, often by
stopping the search for alternative explanations once an initial plausible diagnosis is reached. In this case, the
AGACNP anchored on biliary colic without considering progression to acute cholecystitis, which requires antibiotics
and possible urgent surgical intervention. Anchoring bias (option A) is the tendency to fixate on initial features.
Availability heuristic (option C) overestimates recent or vivid cases. Attribution bias (option D) assigns symptoms to
pre-existing labels such as chronic conditions. Mitigating premature closure requires deliberately generating
alternative hypotheses, using the "diagnostic time-out" technique, and re-evaluating when the clinical course deviates
from expectations.
Q4: An AGACNP working in a tertiary care emergency department recently cared for three patients with
aortic dissection in one week. The following week, the AGACNP orders CT angiography on four
consecutive patients presenting with chest pain, all of which are negative for dissection. This overutilization
is best attributed to which cognitive bias?
A. Anchoring bias
B. Availability heuristic [CORRECT]
C. Premature closure
D. Diagnostic momentum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The availability heuristic leads clinicians to overestimate the probability of diagnoses that are recent,
vivid, or emotionally salient in memory, resulting in disproportionate test ordering. The recent cluster of aortic
dissection cases makes that diagnosis feel more prevalent than its actual baseline incidence. Anchoring bias involves
fixating on initial features, premature closure involves stopping the diagnostic search too early, and diagnostic
momentum occurs when an initial label propagates through the care team without re-evaluation. Mitigation strategies
include calibration through audit and feedback, explicit use of validated risk stratification tools (e.g., aortic dissection
risk score), and structured reflection on the differential diagnosis before ordering high-cost imaging.
,Q5: A 58-year-old male presents with chest pain. History: 62-year-old male, two cardiac risk factors, no ST
changes, normal troponin, reproducible pain on palpation. Using the HEART score for early risk
stratification of ED chest pain patients, which action is most appropriate based on a HEART score of 3 (low
risk)?
A. Admit to telemetry for 24-hour observation and serial troponins
B. Discharge with outpatient stress testing within 72 hours [CORRECT]
C. Immediate coronary angiography for definitive evaluation
D. Administer thrombolytics and transfer to PCI center
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The HEART score (History, ECG, Age, Risk factors, Troponin) stratifies ED chest pain patients into low
(0-3), moderate (4-6), and high (7-10) risk categories. A HEART score of 3 corresponds to approximately 1-2%
major adverse cardiac event (MACE) rate at 30 days, supporting safe discharge with outpatient non-invasive testing
within 72 hours. Admission for serial troponins is reserved for moderate-risk patients. Coronary angiography is
appropriate for high-risk patients (HEART 7-10). Thrombolytics are reserved for STEMI patients meeting criteria.
The HEART pathway has been validated in multiple studies demonstrating reduced admissions without increased
missed MACE, supporting evidence-based, cost-effective care in acute settings.
Q6: An AGACNP evaluates a 35-year-old female with chronic abdominal pain diagnosed as functional
dyspepsia by three prior providers. New onset weight loss, night pain, and anemia are now present. The
patient is reassured that "this is the same problem." Which cognitive error is most concerning in this
scenario?
A. Search-satisficing error
B. Diagnostic momentum [CORRECT]
C. Representativeness heuristic
D. Confirmatory bias
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diagnostic momentum occurs when a diagnostic label, once applied, propagates through subsequent care
encounters without re-evaluation, leading to anchoring on the prior diagnosis despite new red flag symptoms. In this
case, weight loss, night pain, and new anemia are alarm features that warrant re-evaluation for organic pathology
including malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease. Search-satisficing refers to stopping the search once a single
finding is made. Representativeness heuristic judges probability by similarity to a prototype. Confirmatory bias seeks
information that supports an existing belief. Mitigation requires the AGACNP to actively question prior diagnoses
when the clinical picture changes, document the re-evaluation, and obtain additional workup guided by red flag
features.
Q7: A 67-year-old male with COPD on 2L home oxygen presents with increased dyspnea, productive cough,
and confusion. Vitals: T 38.4°C, HR 118, BP 92/58, RR 28, SpO2 86% on 2L. ABG: pH 7.28, PaCO2 64,
PaO2 50, HCO3 28, lactate 3.2. NGN item type: Extended Multiple Response. Select ALL findings that are
red flags requiring escalation of care (select 3):
A. Confusion and hypoxemia less than 88% on home oxygen [CORRECT]
B. Systolic BP 92 with lactate 3.2 mmol/L
C. Heart rate 118 and respiratory rate 28
D. Oral temperature 38.4°C
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: This NGN Extended Multiple Response item requires the AGACNP to analyze cues and identify which
findings meet red flag criteria for escalation. The combination of confusion (altered mental status) with hypoxemia
less than 88% on supplemental oxygen signals impending respiratory failure. Systolic BP 92 with lactate 3.2 meets
qSOFA criteria (SBP ≤ 100, RR ≥ 22, altered mental status) suggesting sepsis. Heart rate 118 alone is non-specific.
Temperature 38.4°C alone is not a red flag in a COPD exacerbation. The integrated clinical picture suggests sepsis
with COPD exacerbation and impending respiratory failure requiring ICU-level care, IV antibiotics, non-invasive
ventilation consideration, and arterial line monitoring.
Q8: A 54-year-old female with acute onset severe occipital headache after exertion describes it as "the worst
headache of my life." Vitals normal, neuro exam intact. The AGACNP must analyze cues and prioritize
hypotheses. Which hypothesis is highest priority given the presentation?
A. Migraine with aura given the severity and occipital location
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage from ruptured aneurysm requiring immediate CT and possible LP
[CORRECT]
C. Tension headache due to muscle strain from exertion
D. Cervicogenic headache from cervical muscle spasm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A thunderclap headache reaching maximum intensity within one minute, particularly following exertion,
is the classic presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and represents a
neurological emergency with up to 50% mortality. The AGACNP must prioritize SAH as the leading hypothesis
given the high morbidity of missed diagnosis. Migraine typically builds over minutes to hours rather than reaching
maximum intensity instantly. Tension and cervicogenic headaches lack the thunderclap quality. CT head without
contrast has high sensitivity within 6 hours, but a negative CT requires lumbar puncture to exclude xanthochromia.
Failure to analyze this cue as a red flag is a leading cause of diagnostic error in malpractice claims.
Q9: A 71-year-old male presents with worsening dyspnea over 3 days, bilateral lower extremity edema,
orthopnea, and JVD. PMH: HFpEF, hypertension, CKD stage 3. The AGACNP generates solutions. Which
diagnostic test combination best identifies the etiology and guides management in this acute decompensated
heart failure presentation?
A. ECG, troponin, and chest CT angiogram to rule out PE and ACS
B. BNP/NT-proBNP, echocardiogram, comprehensive metabolic panel, and chest X-ray [CORRECT]
C. Cardiac MRI, coronary calcium score, and exercise stress test
D. Right heart catheterization, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, and 24-hour Holter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute decompensated heart failure evaluation centers on confirming the diagnosis (BNP/NT-proBNP),
assessing cardiac structure and function (echocardiogram), evaluating renal function and electrolytes for guiding
diuresis (CMP), and identifying pulmonary congestion or effusions (chest X-ray). ECG and troponin are also
important to evaluate for ACS trigger but are not the central panel. Cardiac MRI and stress testing are not first-line in
acute decompensated HF. Right heart catheterization is reserved for diagnostic uncertainty or refractory cases. The
AGACNP uses NGN "generate solutions" to choose tests that simultaneously confirm diagnosis, identify precipitant,
and guide therapy, ensuring evidence-based management aligned with the most recent 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA heart
failure guidelines.
Q10: NGN Bow-tie item. A 62-year-old male presents with acute confusion, urinary incontinence, and a
3-day history of progressive weakness. Labs: Na 122, osmolality 250, urine osmolality 320, urine Na 60,
normal renal and thyroid function, no diuretics. Potential Condition: SIADH. Drag the correct potential
Update)
Differential Diagnosis in Acute Care Practicum Exam Review
Week 5 - 8 | Questions and Verified Answers | 110 Questions Total
Cognitive Distribution: 20% Recall | 45% Application | 35% Analysis | Format: 85% Scenario-Based with NGN
Integration | 15% Direct Recall
Chamberlain College Final Examination Blueprint | NGN Clinical Judgment Model
Section 1: Advanced Diagnostic Reasoning and Clinical Decision-Making
Hypothesis Testing, Pattern Recognition, Diagnostic Errors, and Clinical Algorithms (Q1-Q15)
Q1: A 72-year-old female presents to the acute care clinic with acute onset confusion, urinary frequency,
and low-grade fever. Her daughter reports she has been "forgetting things all morning." Vitals: T 38.1°C,
HR 102, BP 124/78, RR 18, SpO2 96%. Using the NGN Clinical Judgment Model, the AGACNP first
recognizes cues from the presenting symptoms. Which hypothesis should the AGACNP prioritize as most
plausible given the atypical presentation in this elderly patient?
A. Acute ischemic stroke given the confusion and cognitive changes
B. Urinary tract infection with subsequent delirium superimposed on possible baseline cognitive
impairment [CORRECT]
C. Sepsis from a pulmonary source requiring immediate broad-spectrum antibiotics
D. Acute hypoactive hyperthyroidism precipitating thyroid storm with altered mental status
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elderly patients frequently present atypically, and UTI is one of the most common reversible causes of
acute delirium in this population, manifesting with cognitive changes rather than classic dysuria. Acute stroke is less
likely without focal neurologic deficits, and thyroid storm typically presents with hyperthermia, tachycardia out of
proportion to fever, and agitation rather than lethargy. Sepsis is premature without evidence of hypotension, elevated
lactate, or end-organ hypoperfusion. The AGACNP should analyze cues by recognizing that confusion in the elderly
is a red flag requiring reversible cause workup, prioritizing UTI as the leading hypothesis while maintaining a
differential diagnosis that includes metabolic and structural etiologies.
Q2: A 55-year-old male presents with substernal chest pressure radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and
dyspnea that began 30 minutes ago while shoveling snow. PMH: hypertension, hyperlipidemia, type 2
diabetes. The AGACNP recognizes this as a classic pattern of ACS. Which diagnostic reasoning process is
most responsible for rapid identification of this high-risk presentation?
A. Analytic (hypothetico-deductive) reasoning requiring systematic testing of multiple hypotheses
B. Pattern recognition (System 1 thinking) based on illness scripts acquired through clinical
experience [CORRECT]
C. Bayesian probabilistic reasoning using pre-test probability and likelihood ratios
D. Diagnostic algorithms applied step-by-step from a chest pain clinical decision tool
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Pattern recognition, or System 1 intuitive thinking, allows experienced clinicians to rapidly match a
presentation to a stored illness script—a cognitive template built from repeated clinical exposure. The classic
presentation of ACS (substernal pressure, radiation to left arm, diaphoresis, exertional onset, cardiac risk factors)
represents a prototypical pattern requiring rapid activation of the ACS pathway. Analytic reasoning (System 2) is
slower and used for ambiguous or atypical presentations. Bayesian reasoning supports test interpretation but is not the
primary mechanism for initial pattern matching. Algorithms operationalize management but do not replace the
recognition step. The AGACNP must remain alert to anchoring bias when using System 1, deliberately
cross-checking for atypical features that would shift the diagnosis away from ACS.
Q3: A 48-year-old female presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain after eating fried food. The
AGACNP diagnoses biliary colic based on the classic presentation, but the patient returns 12 hours later
with persistent fever, worsening pain, and Murphy sign positive. The initial diagnosis represented
premature closure. Which statement best describes premature closure as a cognitive diagnostic error?
A. The clinician relies on the first piece of information received, ignoring subsequent data
B. The clinician stops considering alternative diagnoses once an initial diagnosis is accepted, failing to
verify or update it [CORRECT]
C. The clinician overestimates the prevalence of a rare diagnosis based on a recent memorable case
D. The clinician attributes the patient symptoms to a previously known condition without new evaluation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Premature closure is the cognitive error of accepting a diagnosis before it has been fully verified, often by
stopping the search for alternative explanations once an initial plausible diagnosis is reached. In this case, the
AGACNP anchored on biliary colic without considering progression to acute cholecystitis, which requires antibiotics
and possible urgent surgical intervention. Anchoring bias (option A) is the tendency to fixate on initial features.
Availability heuristic (option C) overestimates recent or vivid cases. Attribution bias (option D) assigns symptoms to
pre-existing labels such as chronic conditions. Mitigating premature closure requires deliberately generating
alternative hypotheses, using the "diagnostic time-out" technique, and re-evaluating when the clinical course deviates
from expectations.
Q4: An AGACNP working in a tertiary care emergency department recently cared for three patients with
aortic dissection in one week. The following week, the AGACNP orders CT angiography on four
consecutive patients presenting with chest pain, all of which are negative for dissection. This overutilization
is best attributed to which cognitive bias?
A. Anchoring bias
B. Availability heuristic [CORRECT]
C. Premature closure
D. Diagnostic momentum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The availability heuristic leads clinicians to overestimate the probability of diagnoses that are recent,
vivid, or emotionally salient in memory, resulting in disproportionate test ordering. The recent cluster of aortic
dissection cases makes that diagnosis feel more prevalent than its actual baseline incidence. Anchoring bias involves
fixating on initial features, premature closure involves stopping the diagnostic search too early, and diagnostic
momentum occurs when an initial label propagates through the care team without re-evaluation. Mitigation strategies
include calibration through audit and feedback, explicit use of validated risk stratification tools (e.g., aortic dissection
risk score), and structured reflection on the differential diagnosis before ordering high-cost imaging.
,Q5: A 58-year-old male presents with chest pain. History: 62-year-old male, two cardiac risk factors, no ST
changes, normal troponin, reproducible pain on palpation. Using the HEART score for early risk
stratification of ED chest pain patients, which action is most appropriate based on a HEART score of 3 (low
risk)?
A. Admit to telemetry for 24-hour observation and serial troponins
B. Discharge with outpatient stress testing within 72 hours [CORRECT]
C. Immediate coronary angiography for definitive evaluation
D. Administer thrombolytics and transfer to PCI center
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The HEART score (History, ECG, Age, Risk factors, Troponin) stratifies ED chest pain patients into low
(0-3), moderate (4-6), and high (7-10) risk categories. A HEART score of 3 corresponds to approximately 1-2%
major adverse cardiac event (MACE) rate at 30 days, supporting safe discharge with outpatient non-invasive testing
within 72 hours. Admission for serial troponins is reserved for moderate-risk patients. Coronary angiography is
appropriate for high-risk patients (HEART 7-10). Thrombolytics are reserved for STEMI patients meeting criteria.
The HEART pathway has been validated in multiple studies demonstrating reduced admissions without increased
missed MACE, supporting evidence-based, cost-effective care in acute settings.
Q6: An AGACNP evaluates a 35-year-old female with chronic abdominal pain diagnosed as functional
dyspepsia by three prior providers. New onset weight loss, night pain, and anemia are now present. The
patient is reassured that "this is the same problem." Which cognitive error is most concerning in this
scenario?
A. Search-satisficing error
B. Diagnostic momentum [CORRECT]
C. Representativeness heuristic
D. Confirmatory bias
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diagnostic momentum occurs when a diagnostic label, once applied, propagates through subsequent care
encounters without re-evaluation, leading to anchoring on the prior diagnosis despite new red flag symptoms. In this
case, weight loss, night pain, and new anemia are alarm features that warrant re-evaluation for organic pathology
including malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease. Search-satisficing refers to stopping the search once a single
finding is made. Representativeness heuristic judges probability by similarity to a prototype. Confirmatory bias seeks
information that supports an existing belief. Mitigation requires the AGACNP to actively question prior diagnoses
when the clinical picture changes, document the re-evaluation, and obtain additional workup guided by red flag
features.
Q7: A 67-year-old male with COPD on 2L home oxygen presents with increased dyspnea, productive cough,
and confusion. Vitals: T 38.4°C, HR 118, BP 92/58, RR 28, SpO2 86% on 2L. ABG: pH 7.28, PaCO2 64,
PaO2 50, HCO3 28, lactate 3.2. NGN item type: Extended Multiple Response. Select ALL findings that are
red flags requiring escalation of care (select 3):
A. Confusion and hypoxemia less than 88% on home oxygen [CORRECT]
B. Systolic BP 92 with lactate 3.2 mmol/L
C. Heart rate 118 and respiratory rate 28
D. Oral temperature 38.4°C
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: This NGN Extended Multiple Response item requires the AGACNP to analyze cues and identify which
findings meet red flag criteria for escalation. The combination of confusion (altered mental status) with hypoxemia
less than 88% on supplemental oxygen signals impending respiratory failure. Systolic BP 92 with lactate 3.2 meets
qSOFA criteria (SBP ≤ 100, RR ≥ 22, altered mental status) suggesting sepsis. Heart rate 118 alone is non-specific.
Temperature 38.4°C alone is not a red flag in a COPD exacerbation. The integrated clinical picture suggests sepsis
with COPD exacerbation and impending respiratory failure requiring ICU-level care, IV antibiotics, non-invasive
ventilation consideration, and arterial line monitoring.
Q8: A 54-year-old female with acute onset severe occipital headache after exertion describes it as "the worst
headache of my life." Vitals normal, neuro exam intact. The AGACNP must analyze cues and prioritize
hypotheses. Which hypothesis is highest priority given the presentation?
A. Migraine with aura given the severity and occipital location
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage from ruptured aneurysm requiring immediate CT and possible LP
[CORRECT]
C. Tension headache due to muscle strain from exertion
D. Cervicogenic headache from cervical muscle spasm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A thunderclap headache reaching maximum intensity within one minute, particularly following exertion,
is the classic presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and represents a
neurological emergency with up to 50% mortality. The AGACNP must prioritize SAH as the leading hypothesis
given the high morbidity of missed diagnosis. Migraine typically builds over minutes to hours rather than reaching
maximum intensity instantly. Tension and cervicogenic headaches lack the thunderclap quality. CT head without
contrast has high sensitivity within 6 hours, but a negative CT requires lumbar puncture to exclude xanthochromia.
Failure to analyze this cue as a red flag is a leading cause of diagnostic error in malpractice claims.
Q9: A 71-year-old male presents with worsening dyspnea over 3 days, bilateral lower extremity edema,
orthopnea, and JVD. PMH: HFpEF, hypertension, CKD stage 3. The AGACNP generates solutions. Which
diagnostic test combination best identifies the etiology and guides management in this acute decompensated
heart failure presentation?
A. ECG, troponin, and chest CT angiogram to rule out PE and ACS
B. BNP/NT-proBNP, echocardiogram, comprehensive metabolic panel, and chest X-ray [CORRECT]
C. Cardiac MRI, coronary calcium score, and exercise stress test
D. Right heart catheterization, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, and 24-hour Holter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute decompensated heart failure evaluation centers on confirming the diagnosis (BNP/NT-proBNP),
assessing cardiac structure and function (echocardiogram), evaluating renal function and electrolytes for guiding
diuresis (CMP), and identifying pulmonary congestion or effusions (chest X-ray). ECG and troponin are also
important to evaluate for ACS trigger but are not the central panel. Cardiac MRI and stress testing are not first-line in
acute decompensated HF. Right heart catheterization is reserved for diagnostic uncertainty or refractory cases. The
AGACNP uses NGN "generate solutions" to choose tests that simultaneously confirm diagnosis, identify precipitant,
and guide therapy, ensuring evidence-based management aligned with the most recent 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA heart
failure guidelines.
Q10: NGN Bow-tie item. A 62-year-old male presents with acute confusion, urinary incontinence, and a
3-day history of progressive weakness. Labs: Na 122, osmolality 250, urine osmolality 320, urine Na 60,
normal renal and thyroid function, no diuretics. Potential Condition: SIADH. Drag the correct potential
