LEIK FNP EXAM PRACTICE FOR
FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER
BOARD EXAM PREP
1. A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and Stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease
(CKD) presents for follow-up. His blood pressure is 152/94 mmHg. Which medication is the
preferred first-line agent for this patient?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Metoprolol
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors (like Lisinopril) or ARBs are first-line for patients
with CKD and hypertension because they provide renoprotective effects by reducing
intraglomerular pressure.
,2. A 24-year-old female presents with a ‘herald patch’ on her back followed by a Christmas
tree-like distribution of smaller maculopapular lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea Corporis
B. Psoriasis
C. Secondary Syphilis
D. Pityriasis Rosea
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Pityriasis rosea typically begins with a single herald patch
followed by a generalized rash in a Christmas tree distribution. It is self-limiting.
3. Which of the following heart murmurs is best heard at the apex of the heart and radiates
to the left axilla?
A. Aortic Stenosis
B. Mitral Stenosis
C. Aortic Regurgitation
D. Mitral Regurgitation
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Mitral regurgitation is a pansystolic murmur heard best at the
apex and typically radiates to the axilla.
, 4. An 8-year-old child presents with a ‘slapped-cheek’ appearance and a reticulated lace-like
rash on the trunk. Which virus is the causative agent?
A. Human Herpesvirus 6
B. Coxsackievirus A16
C. Varicella Zoster Virus
D. Parvovirus B19
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Parvovirus B19 causes Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease),
characterized by the slapped-cheek appearance and lacy rash.
5. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking Warfarin. His INR today is 9.5, and he
has no signs of active bleeding. What is the recommended management?
A. Decrease the Warfarin dose and recheck in 1 week
B. Hold Warfarin and repeat INR in 24 hours
C. Hold Warfarin and administer IV Vitamin K
D. Hold Warfarin and administer Oral Vitamin K
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: For INR > 9.0 without serious bleeding, the recommendation is
to hold Warfarin and give oral Vitamin K (2.5-5 mg).
FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER
BOARD EXAM PREP
1. A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and Stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease
(CKD) presents for follow-up. His blood pressure is 152/94 mmHg. Which medication is the
preferred first-line agent for this patient?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Metoprolol
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors (like Lisinopril) or ARBs are first-line for patients
with CKD and hypertension because they provide renoprotective effects by reducing
intraglomerular pressure.
,2. A 24-year-old female presents with a ‘herald patch’ on her back followed by a Christmas
tree-like distribution of smaller maculopapular lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea Corporis
B. Psoriasis
C. Secondary Syphilis
D. Pityriasis Rosea
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Pityriasis rosea typically begins with a single herald patch
followed by a generalized rash in a Christmas tree distribution. It is self-limiting.
3. Which of the following heart murmurs is best heard at the apex of the heart and radiates
to the left axilla?
A. Aortic Stenosis
B. Mitral Stenosis
C. Aortic Regurgitation
D. Mitral Regurgitation
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Mitral regurgitation is a pansystolic murmur heard best at the
apex and typically radiates to the axilla.
, 4. An 8-year-old child presents with a ‘slapped-cheek’ appearance and a reticulated lace-like
rash on the trunk. Which virus is the causative agent?
A. Human Herpesvirus 6
B. Coxsackievirus A16
C. Varicella Zoster Virus
D. Parvovirus B19
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Parvovirus B19 causes Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease),
characterized by the slapped-cheek appearance and lacy rash.
5. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking Warfarin. His INR today is 9.5, and he
has no signs of active bleeding. What is the recommended management?
A. Decrease the Warfarin dose and recheck in 1 week
B. Hold Warfarin and repeat INR in 24 hours
C. Hold Warfarin and administer IV Vitamin K
D. Hold Warfarin and administer Oral Vitamin K
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: For INR > 9.0 without serious bleeding, the recommendation is
to hold Warfarin and give oral Vitamin K (2.5-5 mg).
