NURSE PRACTITIONER BOARD EXAM
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A 68-year-old male patient presents with reports of pain in his calves when walking two
blocks, which is relieved by rest. On physical exam, his legs are cool to the touch with
diminished pedal pulses and lack of hair growth. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Venous Doppler ultrasound
B. Arterial angiography
C. D-dimer assay
D. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The clinical presentation is classic for Peripheral Artery Disease
(PAD). The Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is the standard initial screening tool. An ABI of 0.9
or less is diagnostic of PAD.
,2. A patient with a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is currently
taking Lisinopril and Carvedilol. Their blood pressure is 138/86 mmHg and HR is 72 bpm.
Which medication class is now recommended as part of the four-pillar foundational therapy
for HFrEF to further reduce mortality?
A. SGLT2 inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Loop diuretics
D. Long-acting nitrates
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Current guidelines for HFrEF recommend four-pillar therapy:
ARNI/ACEi/ARB, Beta-blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitors (like Dapagliflozin or
Empagliflozin) regardless of diabetes status.
3. Which of the following laboratory findings is most characteristic of Anemia of Chronic
Disease (ACD)?
A. Low Ferritin, High TIBC
B. High Ferritin, High TIBC
C. Low Ferritin, Low TIBC
D. High Ferritin, Low TIBC
Answer: D
, Conceptual Explanation: In ACD, ferritin (stored iron) is typically normal or high because
iron is ‘locked away’ due to inflammation, while TIBC is low because the body is not trying
to transport more iron.
4. A 24-year-old female presents with a ‘strawberry cervix’ and a malodorous, frothy
yellowish-green vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the first-line treatment?
A. Fluconazole 150mg PO once
B. Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
C. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once
D. Doxycycline 100mg PO BID for 7 days
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Strawberry cervix and frothy discharge are indicative of
Trichomoniasis. The CDC now recommends Metronidazole 500mg BID for 7 days for
females to ensure higher cure rates compared to single-dose therapy.
5. An elderly patient presents with sudden onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and
seeing ‘halos’ around lights. The pupil is mid-dilated and non-reactive to light. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Macular Degeneration
B. Retinal Detachment
C. Cataract progression
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A 68-year-old male patient presents with reports of pain in his calves when walking two
blocks, which is relieved by rest. On physical exam, his legs are cool to the touch with
diminished pedal pulses and lack of hair growth. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Venous Doppler ultrasound
B. Arterial angiography
C. D-dimer assay
D. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The clinical presentation is classic for Peripheral Artery Disease
(PAD). The Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is the standard initial screening tool. An ABI of 0.9
or less is diagnostic of PAD.
,2. A patient with a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is currently
taking Lisinopril and Carvedilol. Their blood pressure is 138/86 mmHg and HR is 72 bpm.
Which medication class is now recommended as part of the four-pillar foundational therapy
for HFrEF to further reduce mortality?
A. SGLT2 inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Loop diuretics
D. Long-acting nitrates
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Current guidelines for HFrEF recommend four-pillar therapy:
ARNI/ACEi/ARB, Beta-blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitors (like Dapagliflozin or
Empagliflozin) regardless of diabetes status.
3. Which of the following laboratory findings is most characteristic of Anemia of Chronic
Disease (ACD)?
A. Low Ferritin, High TIBC
B. High Ferritin, High TIBC
C. Low Ferritin, Low TIBC
D. High Ferritin, Low TIBC
Answer: D
, Conceptual Explanation: In ACD, ferritin (stored iron) is typically normal or high because
iron is ‘locked away’ due to inflammation, while TIBC is low because the body is not trying
to transport more iron.
4. A 24-year-old female presents with a ‘strawberry cervix’ and a malodorous, frothy
yellowish-green vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the first-line treatment?
A. Fluconazole 150mg PO once
B. Metronidazole 500mg PO BID for 7 days
C. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once
D. Doxycycline 100mg PO BID for 7 days
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Strawberry cervix and frothy discharge are indicative of
Trichomoniasis. The CDC now recommends Metronidazole 500mg BID for 7 days for
females to ensure higher cure rates compared to single-dose therapy.
5. An elderly patient presents with sudden onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and
seeing ‘halos’ around lights. The pupil is mid-dilated and non-reactive to light. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Macular Degeneration
B. Retinal Detachment
C. Cataract progression
