NURSING LICENSURE
NR 603 Week 2 Quiz — 2026/2027 Official Exam
A+
Complete Domain Coverage
A+ 4 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Section 1: Neurological Emergencies & Neuromuscular Disorders
Section 2: Mental Health Disorders in Primary Care
Section 3: Reproductive Health & Gynecologic Disorders
Section 4: Infectious Disease & Acute Complex Presentations
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, NR 603 Week 2 Quiz — 2026/2027 Official Exam
Each question is worth 1 mark. Total: 50 marks. Passing score: 80% (40 correct). Select the single best answer.
SECTION 1: Neurological Emergencies & Neuromuscular Disorders
Q1
Q1. A 68-year-old man presents with a headache that has changed in character over the past 10 days. He reports
progressive difficulty concentrating, brief episodes of blurred vision, and one episode of imbalance. Neurologic exam is
nonfocal. Which next step is most appropriate?
A. Recommend rest, hydration, and routine follow-up in one week
B. Order urgent neuroimaging to evaluate for intracranial pathology
C. Start a trial of triptan therapy and refer to outpatient neurology
D. Screen for depression and initiate an SSRI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A change in headache pattern with cognitive and visual symptoms in an older adult raises concern for space-occupying
lesions or other intracranial pathology. Urgent imaging is indicated rather than symptomatic treatment or delayed follow-up.
Q2
Q2. A 42-year-old woman reports progressive lower back and pelvic pain for one week, new left-foot weakness, and an
episode of urinary incontinence this morning. Exam shows 3/5 strength in left ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion with
a diminished left patellar reflex. Which action is the priority?
A. Initiate NSAIDs and schedule physical therapy
B. Order pelvic ultrasound and refer to gynecology
C. Monitor symptoms and reassess in 48 hours
D. Obtain urgent MRI of the lumbosacral spine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: New motor deficits, reflex changes, and bowel/bladder symptoms suggest possible cauda equina or significant spinal
cord compression. Urgent MRI is required to guide intervention and prevent permanent neurologic injury.
Q3
Q3. A 55-year-old man develops acute bilateral upper-extremity weakness greater than lower-extremity weakness after
a hyperextension neck injury. Sensation is relatively preserved in the legs. Which spinal cord syndrome is most
consistent with this pattern?
A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Central cord syndrome
C. Brown-Séquard syndrome
D. Complete transection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Central cord syndrome classically produces greater motor impairment in the upper extremities than the lower extremities,
often after hyperextension injury in older adults with cervical spondylosis.
NR 603 Week 2 Quiz — 2026/2027 Official Exam
A+
Complete Domain Coverage
A+ 4 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Section 1: Neurological Emergencies & Neuromuscular Disorders
Section 2: Mental Health Disorders in Primary Care
Section 3: Reproductive Health & Gynecologic Disorders
Section 4: Infectious Disease & Acute Complex Presentations
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, NR 603 Week 2 Quiz — 2026/2027 Official Exam
Each question is worth 1 mark. Total: 50 marks. Passing score: 80% (40 correct). Select the single best answer.
SECTION 1: Neurological Emergencies & Neuromuscular Disorders
Q1
Q1. A 68-year-old man presents with a headache that has changed in character over the past 10 days. He reports
progressive difficulty concentrating, brief episodes of blurred vision, and one episode of imbalance. Neurologic exam is
nonfocal. Which next step is most appropriate?
A. Recommend rest, hydration, and routine follow-up in one week
B. Order urgent neuroimaging to evaluate for intracranial pathology
C. Start a trial of triptan therapy and refer to outpatient neurology
D. Screen for depression and initiate an SSRI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A change in headache pattern with cognitive and visual symptoms in an older adult raises concern for space-occupying
lesions or other intracranial pathology. Urgent imaging is indicated rather than symptomatic treatment or delayed follow-up.
Q2
Q2. A 42-year-old woman reports progressive lower back and pelvic pain for one week, new left-foot weakness, and an
episode of urinary incontinence this morning. Exam shows 3/5 strength in left ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion with
a diminished left patellar reflex. Which action is the priority?
A. Initiate NSAIDs and schedule physical therapy
B. Order pelvic ultrasound and refer to gynecology
C. Monitor symptoms and reassess in 48 hours
D. Obtain urgent MRI of the lumbosacral spine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: New motor deficits, reflex changes, and bowel/bladder symptoms suggest possible cauda equina or significant spinal
cord compression. Urgent MRI is required to guide intervention and prevent permanent neurologic injury.
Q3
Q3. A 55-year-old man develops acute bilateral upper-extremity weakness greater than lower-extremity weakness after
a hyperextension neck injury. Sensation is relatively preserved in the legs. Which spinal cord syndrome is most
consistent with this pattern?
A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Central cord syndrome
C. Brown-Séquard syndrome
D. Complete transection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Central cord syndrome classically produces greater motor impairment in the upper extremities than the lower extremities,
often after hyperextension injury in older adults with cervical spondylosis.
