NR507 Final Exam – Comprehensive Advanced
Pathophysiology Review with Answers 2026/2027 |
Chamberlain University | Cardiovascular, Pulmonary,
Renal, Endocrine, Neurological & Gastrointestinal Disorders
| Verified 150 Questions & Answers with Rationales
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Question 1: Heart Failure Pathophysiology
A patient with chronic hypertension presents with worsening shortness of breath and peripheral
edema. Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains these findings?
A. Decreased cardiac output leading to renal hypoperfusion
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy leading to diastolic dysfunction and increased filling pressures
C. Right ventricular failure causing pulmonary congestion
D. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chronic hypertension causes left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) as the heart works against
increased afterload. LVH leads to diastolic dysfunction—the stiffened ventricle cannot relax properly
during diastole, increasing left ventricular filling pressures. This pressure backs up into the
pulmonary circulation, causing pulmonary congestion (shortness of breath) and eventually right-
sided failure with peripheral edema .
Question 2: Frank-Starling Mechanism in Heart Failure
Which statement correctly describes the Frank-Starling mechanism in heart failure?
A. Increased preload always improves cardiac output
B. The mechanism is fully effective in all stages of heart failure
C. As preload increases, stroke volume initially increases but plateaus in failing hearts
D. The mechanism does not apply to the left ventricle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Frank-Starling mechanism states that increased preload (ventricular filling) stretches
myocardial fibers, increasing contractile force and stroke volume. In heart failure, the failing
ventricle operates on the plateau of the Starling curve, where further increases in preload do not
improve output .
Question 3: Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction (HFpEF)
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A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF). Which finding is
most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Ejection fraction < 40%
B. Ejection fraction ≥ 50% with evidence of diastolic dysfunction
C. Dilated left ventricle
D. Severe mitral regurgitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: HFpEF (diastolic heart failure) is defined by an ejection fraction ≥ 50% with evidence of
diastolic dysfunction. The heart pumps adequately but the ventricles are stiff and fail to fill properly
during diastole, leading to elevated filling pressures .
Question 4: Left-Sided Heart Failure Manifestations
A patient with left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit which of the following?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary crackles and orthopnea
D. Hepatomegaly
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary veins and capillaries,
leading to pulmonary congestion. This manifests as crackles on auscultation and orthopnea
(shortness of breath when lying flat) .
Question 5: Chronic Hypertension and Cardiac Adaptation
A patient has chronic hypertension. Which long-term cardiac adaptation commonly develops?
A. Left ventricular atrophy
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Right ventricular rupture
D. Decreased myocardial workload
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chronic pressure overload increases ventricular workload and can cause compensatory
left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an adaptive response to maintain cardiac output against
increased systemic vascular resistance .
Question 6: Atrial Fibrillation and Stroke Risk
Why does atrial fibrillation increase the risk of ischemic stroke?
A. It causes excessive red blood cell production
B. Blood stasis in the atria promotes thrombus formation
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C. It directly destroys cerebral neurons
D. It permanently increases cerebral blood flow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ineffective atrial contraction causes blood stasis, particularly in the left atrial appendage,
promoting thrombus formation and systemic embolization. These emboli can travel to the cerebral
circulation, causing ischemic stroke .
Question 7: Acute Coronary Syndrome Pathophysiology
A patient develops chest pain, ST-segment elevation, and elevated troponin levels. Which
mechanism best explains these findings?
A. Increased myocardial oxygen supply
B. Acute coronary artery obstruction from plaque rupture and thrombosis
C. Decreased platelet activation
D. Increased coronary perfusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Plaque rupture can activate platelets and coagulation, producing an acute thrombus that
reduces coronary blood flow. This causes myocardial ischemia and necrosis, reflected by elevated
troponin and ST-segment changes .
Question 8: Cardiogenic Shock Following MI
A patient develops hypotension, cool extremities, altered mental status, and elevated lactate after a
large myocardial infarction. Which type of shock is most likely?
A. Septic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart fails to pump adequately, typically following a
large MI. Findings include hypotension, poor perfusion (cool extremities, altered mental status), and
elevated lactate from tissue hypoxia .
Question 9: Obstructive Shock from Pulmonary Embolism
A patient with pulmonary embolism develops hypotension and severe right ventricular strain. Which
type of shock may result?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock from primary LV failure
C. Obstructive shock
D. Neurogenic shock
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Correct answer: C
Rationale: A massive pulmonary embolism obstructs pulmonary blood flow, increasing right
ventricular afterload and reducing effective cardiac output. This is classified as obstructive shock .
SECTION 2: RESPIRATORY PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Question 10: Asthma Pathophysiology
A patient with asthma develops episodic wheezing and reversible airflow obstruction. Which
pathophysiologic process is central to asthma?
A. Permanent alveolar destruction
B. Airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness with bronchoconstriction
C. Pleural fluid accumulation
D. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asthma involves chronic airway inflammation, bronchial hyperresponsiveness, and
variable airflow obstruction. The inflammation leads to airway edema, mucus production, and
bronchoconstriction, causing reversible airflow limitation .
Question 11: Carbon Monoxide Toxicity and Hypoxic Injury
A 58-year-old male construction worker presents with chronic fatigue and shortness of breath. He
has a 30-year history of smoking two packs per day, and his arterial blood gas reveals a
carboxyhemoglobin level of 12%. His cardiac myocytes show mitochondrial swelling and cristae
disruption on electron microscopy. The cellular injury pattern observed is best classified as which
type of adaptation or injury?
A. Hypoxic injury due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
B. Ischemic injury due to reduced arterial blood flow to myocardial tissue
C. Chemical injury due to direct toxin-mediated destruction of cell membranes
D. Apoptotic injury due to programmed cell death triggered by carbon monoxide
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Carbon monoxide binds hemoglobin with 200 times the affinity of oxygen, drastically
reducing the oxygen-carrying capacity and causing hypoxic injury to tissues, including mitochondrial
swelling and cristae disruption. Ischemic injury refers specifically to reduced blood flow rather than
impaired oxygen transport; the blood flow to this patient's myocardium is not compromised .
Question 12: Cystic Fibrosis Pathophysiology
What is the primary pathophysiology behind Cystic Fibrosis?