Barkley WHNP Practice ACTUAL EXAM ALL
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS |
UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES |
GRADED A+
Well-Woman Gynecology & Preventive Care (Questions 1-20)
Question 1
A 24-year-old female requests her routine cervical cancer screening. According to ASCCP
guidelines, what is the standard protocol?
A. Cytology alone every 3 years
B. Primary HPV testing every 5 years
C. Cytology with HPV co-testing every 3 years
D. Co-testing every 5 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ASCCP guidelines mandate cytology alone for ages 21-29. Primary HPV testing or co-
testing is avoided in this age group due to high transient viral clearance rates, which could lead
to unnecessary procedures .
Question 2
A 35-year-old female presents for a routine checkup. What is the preferred cervical cancer
screening strategy for her age group?
A. Cytology alone every 3 years
B. Primary HPV testing every 5 years
C. Co-testing every 10 years
D. Cytology every 5 years
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For ages 30-65, screening with primary HPV testing every 5 years or co-testing
(cytology + HPV) every 5 years provides optimal reassurance and sensitivity .
Question 3
A 22-year-old female's Pap result shows ASC-US (Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined
Significance). What is the next step?
A. Immediate colposcopy
B. Repeat cytology in 12 months
C. Perform reflex HPV testing
D. Perform LEEP procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients aged 21-24, low-grade lesions frequently regress spontaneously. Repeat
cytology in 12 months minimizes unnecessary cervical procedures .
Question 4
A 27-year-old female presents with LSIL and positive HPV test. What is the appropriate next
step?
A. Repeat Pap in 12 months
B. Immediate colposcopy
C. Perform LEEP procedure
D. Repeat Pap in 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For women age 25 and older with LSIL and positive HPV, immediate colposcopy is
required to check for underlying high-grade dysplasia .
Question 5
A 40-year-old woman has a Pap smear showing HSIL. What is the next best step?
A. Repeat Pap smear in one year
B. Colposcopy with directed biopsy
,C. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)
D. Hysterectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HSIL on cervical cytology requires colposcopy with directed biopsy to obtain
histologic confirmation and rule out invasive cancer .
Question 6
A 30-year-old woman has a Pap test with HPV co-testing. The result is NILM and HPV negative.
The recommended follow-up is:
A. Repeat co-testing in 1 year
B. Repeat co-testing in 3 years
C. Repeat co-testing in 5 years
D. Colposcopy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For women aged 30-65 with a negative co-test (NILM and HPV negative), routine
screening is recommended no sooner than every 5 years .
Question 7
The quadrivalent HPV vaccine (Gardasil) protects against which HPV types?
A. 6, 11, 16, 18
B. 16, 18, 31, 33
C. 31, 33, 45, 52
D. 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The quadrivalent vaccine covers HPV 6, 11 (low-risk, cause 90% of genital warts) and
HPV 16, 18 (high-risk, cause 70% of cervical cancers). The 9-valent vaccine covers additional
types .
Question 8
Which of the following is a known risk factor for cervical cancer?
, A. Multiparity
B. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types 16 and 18
C. Early menopause
D. Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent infection with oncogenic (high-risk) HPV types, especially 16 and 18, is the
primary cause of cervical cancer .
Question 9
A 45-year-old woman reports irregular, heavy menses and hot flashes. Her FSH level is elevated.
Which phase of reproductive aging is she most likely experiencing?
A. Premenopause
B. Perimenopause (menopause transition)
C. Postmenopause
D. Primary ovarian insufficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The menopause transition (perimenopause) is characterized by menstrual cycle
irregularity, vasomotor symptoms, and elevated FSH levels, typically occurring in the mid- to late
40s .
Question 10
What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a reproductive-age woman after
pregnancy has been ruled out?
A. Asherman's syndrome
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
D. Premature ovarian failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PCOS is the most common endocrine cause of secondary amenorrhea .
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS |
UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES |
GRADED A+
Well-Woman Gynecology & Preventive Care (Questions 1-20)
Question 1
A 24-year-old female requests her routine cervical cancer screening. According to ASCCP
guidelines, what is the standard protocol?
A. Cytology alone every 3 years
B. Primary HPV testing every 5 years
C. Cytology with HPV co-testing every 3 years
D. Co-testing every 5 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ASCCP guidelines mandate cytology alone for ages 21-29. Primary HPV testing or co-
testing is avoided in this age group due to high transient viral clearance rates, which could lead
to unnecessary procedures .
Question 2
A 35-year-old female presents for a routine checkup. What is the preferred cervical cancer
screening strategy for her age group?
A. Cytology alone every 3 years
B. Primary HPV testing every 5 years
C. Co-testing every 10 years
D. Cytology every 5 years
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For ages 30-65, screening with primary HPV testing every 5 years or co-testing
(cytology + HPV) every 5 years provides optimal reassurance and sensitivity .
Question 3
A 22-year-old female's Pap result shows ASC-US (Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined
Significance). What is the next step?
A. Immediate colposcopy
B. Repeat cytology in 12 months
C. Perform reflex HPV testing
D. Perform LEEP procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients aged 21-24, low-grade lesions frequently regress spontaneously. Repeat
cytology in 12 months minimizes unnecessary cervical procedures .
Question 4
A 27-year-old female presents with LSIL and positive HPV test. What is the appropriate next
step?
A. Repeat Pap in 12 months
B. Immediate colposcopy
C. Perform LEEP procedure
D. Repeat Pap in 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For women age 25 and older with LSIL and positive HPV, immediate colposcopy is
required to check for underlying high-grade dysplasia .
Question 5
A 40-year-old woman has a Pap smear showing HSIL. What is the next best step?
A. Repeat Pap smear in one year
B. Colposcopy with directed biopsy
,C. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)
D. Hysterectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HSIL on cervical cytology requires colposcopy with directed biopsy to obtain
histologic confirmation and rule out invasive cancer .
Question 6
A 30-year-old woman has a Pap test with HPV co-testing. The result is NILM and HPV negative.
The recommended follow-up is:
A. Repeat co-testing in 1 year
B. Repeat co-testing in 3 years
C. Repeat co-testing in 5 years
D. Colposcopy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For women aged 30-65 with a negative co-test (NILM and HPV negative), routine
screening is recommended no sooner than every 5 years .
Question 7
The quadrivalent HPV vaccine (Gardasil) protects against which HPV types?
A. 6, 11, 16, 18
B. 16, 18, 31, 33
C. 31, 33, 45, 52
D. 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The quadrivalent vaccine covers HPV 6, 11 (low-risk, cause 90% of genital warts) and
HPV 16, 18 (high-risk, cause 70% of cervical cancers). The 9-valent vaccine covers additional
types .
Question 8
Which of the following is a known risk factor for cervical cancer?
, A. Multiparity
B. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types 16 and 18
C. Early menopause
D. Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent infection with oncogenic (high-risk) HPV types, especially 16 and 18, is the
primary cause of cervical cancer .
Question 9
A 45-year-old woman reports irregular, heavy menses and hot flashes. Her FSH level is elevated.
Which phase of reproductive aging is she most likely experiencing?
A. Premenopause
B. Perimenopause (menopause transition)
C. Postmenopause
D. Primary ovarian insufficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The menopause transition (perimenopause) is characterized by menstrual cycle
irregularity, vasomotor symptoms, and elevated FSH levels, typically occurring in the mid- to late
40s .
Question 10
What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a reproductive-age woman after
pregnancy has been ruled out?
A. Asherman's syndrome
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
D. Premature ovarian failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PCOS is the most common endocrine cause of secondary amenorrhea .
