Bank: Oklahoma CLEET
Armed Security Guard
Exam (Phase IV) Analysis
PART 0: THE TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section Reference Cognitive Tier Subject Focus
PART I: THE PREVIEW System Framework Assessment Directives &
Critical Axioms
PART II: THE ELITE TEST Baseline Comprehensive MCQ Gauntlet
BANK
Questions 1–18 Tier 1: Foundational Syntax Definitions, Weapon Specs,
Range Safety
Questions 19–37 Tier 2: Complex Application Malfunctions, Admin Statutes,
Transport Law
Questions 38–55 Tier 3: Grandmaster Synthesis Lethal Force, Preemption,
Vicarious Liability
PART I: THE PREVIEW
The Mentor's Introduction
Mastering this elite assessment ensures your conceptual grasp of the Oklahoma Council on
Law Enforcement Education and Training (CLEET) standards transcends baseline
memorization, forging you into a legally insulated and tactically proficient armed professional. By
internalizing these 55 meticulously engineered scenarios, you guarantee elite academic mastery
and immediate, high-stakes operational competence in the field.
The "Critical Axioms" Cheat Sheet
The following frameworks govern the absolute boundaries of armed private security operations
within the State of Oklahoma:
Axiom Category Core Directives & Statutory Frameworks
Licensing Prerequisites Armed guards must be 21+ and pass the MMPI
psychological evaluation. Phase IV training
mandates 32 total hours (16 classroom/16
,Axiom Category Core Directives & Statutory Frameworks
range), 100% attendance, an 85% written exam
score, and a 70% range qualification.
Weapon Specifications Duty handguns must be a minimum of 9mm
(semi-auto) or .38/.357 (revolver). Shotguns
must be 12-gauge pump-action without a
hammer safety. Only factory-loaded ammunition
is authorized; re-loads are strictly prohibited.
Use of Force (Title 21) An armed guard possesses the exact same
arrest authority as a private citizen. Deadly
force is strictly governed by 21 O.S. § 733
(Justifiable Homicide) and 21 O.S. § 1289.25
(Stand Your Ground).
State Preemption Under 21 O.S. § 1289.24, the Oklahoma
Legislature completely preempts local
municipalities from banning the possession or
transport of firearms, though cities may regulate
firearm discharge.
Administrative Reporting Any duty-related firearm discharge requires an
immediate telephonic report to CLEET during
business hours, followed by a written report
within 24 hours.
PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
Tier 1: Foundational Syntax & Application
Q1: An applicant seeks an original Oklahoma Armed Security Guard License. Based on the
principles of the Oklahoma Security Guard and Private Investigator Act (59 O.S. § 1750.5),
which age and psychological requirement is MOST ACCURATE? A) The applicant must be 18
years of age and pass a polygraph examination. B) The applicant must be 21 years of age and
submit to a background check, with no psychological evaluation required. C) The applicant must
be at least 21 years of age and successfully pass a psychological evaluation by a licensed
psychologist. D) The applicant must be 18 years of age and pass the Minnesota Multiphasic
Personality Inventory (MMPI).
● Answer: C (The applicant must be at least 21 years of age and successfully pass a
psychological evaluation by a licensed psychologist.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: The minimum age for an armed license is 21, not 18, and polygraphs
are not standard requirements.
○ B is incorrect: An armed upgrade statutorily mandates a psychological evaluation
(MMPI).
○ D is incorrect: While the MMPI is correct, the age for armed status is strictly 21.
The Mentor's Analysis: The foundational gateway to carrying a firearm professionally requires
strict maturity and mental stability benchmarks. When facing an armed upgrade, the immediate
priority is verifying the applicant is 21 and psychologically cleared. By utilizing the Title 59 age
mandate, you bypass the common trap of confusing unarmed (18) and armed (21) age
requirements. Professional/Academic Intuition: Always isolate armed qualifications from
, unarmed baselines; a firearm legally elevates the minimum age to 21 and mandates
psychological clearance.
Q2: A student is enrolling in the CLEET Phase IV Firearms course. Based on CLEET
qualification standards, which academic and operational threshold is MOST ACCURATE for
successful certification? A) 80% attendance, 70% on the written exam, and 85% on the range
qualification. B) 100% attendance, 85% or better on written exams, and passing all CLEET
range qualifications. C) 90% attendance, passing the MMPI, and scoring 75% on the written
exam. D) Completion of 16 hours total training with a 70% passing score on both written and
range exams.
● Answer: B (100% attendance, 85% or better on written exams, and passing all CLEET
range qualifications.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Attendance must be 100%, and the written exam floor is 85%.
○ C is incorrect: 90% attendance results in automatic failure; 100% is non-negotiable.
○ D is incorrect: Phase IV is 32 total hours, not 16.
The Mentor's Analysis: CLEET maintains uncompromising performance floors for armed
personnel. When facing certification parameters, the immediate priority is perfect attendance
and high academic performance. By utilizing the 100/85/70 certification formula, you bypass the
common trap of assuming standard university passing grades apply to lethal force training.
Professional/Academic Intuition: Phase IV requires 100% attendance, an 85% written score,
and a 70% minimum on the firing line.
Q3: A security agency issues a 12-gauge pump-action shotgun to an armed guard. Based on
OAC 390:35-13-1 regarding authorized firearms, which shotgun mechanism is STRICTLY
PROHIBITED? A) A pump-action shotgun utilizing a cross-bolt safety. B) A pump-action shotgun
chambered for 2 3/4 inch shells. C) A pump-action shotgun equipped with a hammer safety. D)
A slide-action shotgun loaded with factory buckshot.
● Answer: C (A pump-action shotgun equipped with a hammer safety.)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Cross-bolt and tang safeties are standard and authorized on pump
shotguns.
○ B is incorrect: The 2 3/4 inch shell is explicitly authorized by CLEET.
○ D is incorrect: Factory loaded buckshot is standard authorized service ammunition.
The Mentor's Analysis: Weapon nomenclature rules are rigid to prevent mechanical failures and
unauthorized deployments. When facing shotgun selection, the immediate priority is verifying it
is a slide-action without a hammer safety. By utilizing the authorized weapons code, you bypass
the common trap of assuming all shotguns are CLEET-approved. Professional/Academic
Intuition: Hammer safeties on shotguns are expressly forbidden for Oklahoma private
security; always verify the mechanical safety type.
Q4: An armed guard decides to utilize hand-loaded ammunition to save money on duty gear.
Based on OAC 390:35-13-1, which conclusion regarding this ammunition is MOST
ACCURATE? A) It is permitted if the guard qualifies with the specific hand-loads on the range.
B) It is prohibited; all prescribed revolver, semi-automatic, and shotgun ammunition must be
"factory-loaded." C) It is permitted for revolvers but strictly prohibited for semi-automatic
handguns. D) It is prohibited unless the re-loads are certified by a licensed gunsmith.
● Answer: B (It is prohibited; all prescribed revolver, semi-automatic, and shotgun
ammunition must be "factory-loaded.")
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Qualification does not override the absolute ban on re-loads for duty