D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the
Advanced Practice Nurse Questions with CORRECT
Answers (Grade A+)
Question 1:
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?
Answer:
Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the
illness, it will be expressed.
Question 2:
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause?
Answer:
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of
intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Question 3:
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
Answer:
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing
that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of
pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually
performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on
the embryo prior to implantation.
Question 4:
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a
normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene?
Answer:
Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes
the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
,Question 5:
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?
Answer:
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers. Since females have two copies of the X
chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter
may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a
female) to cancel it out.
Question 6:
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population?
Answer:
Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
Question 7:
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
Answer:
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of
each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
Question 8:
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.
Answer:
The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
Question 9:
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing?
Answer:
The underlying chronic illness exists. A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness
depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
Question 10:
Which cells are the body's primary de-
Answer:
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites. fense against parasite invasion?
,Question 11:
What Phagocytes bacteria?
Answer:
Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
Question 12:
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?
Answer:
Helper T cells
Question 13:
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen?
Answer:
Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
Question 14:
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility?
Answer:
The complement pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
Question 15:
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?
Answer:
An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Question 16:
Which four infections are considered fungal infections?
Answer:
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
, Question 17:
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection?
Answer:
Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing
may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false
negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
Question 18:
What is a characteristic of exotoxins?
Answer:
Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Question 19:
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
Answer:
The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased
risk of developing colon cancer.
Question 20:
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop?
Answer:
Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Question 21:
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light? The degree of damage is not affected by the
light's wavelength.
Answer:
UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA
strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers.
These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Advanced Practice Nurse Questions with CORRECT
Answers (Grade A+)
Question 1:
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?
Answer:
Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the
illness, it will be expressed.
Question 2:
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause?
Answer:
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of
intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Question 3:
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
Answer:
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing
that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of
pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually
performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on
the embryo prior to implantation.
Question 4:
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a
normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene?
Answer:
Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes
the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
,Question 5:
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?
Answer:
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers. Since females have two copies of the X
chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter
may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a
female) to cancel it out.
Question 6:
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population?
Answer:
Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
Question 7:
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
Answer:
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of
each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
Question 8:
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.
Answer:
The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
Question 9:
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing?
Answer:
The underlying chronic illness exists. A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness
depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
Question 10:
Which cells are the body's primary de-
Answer:
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites. fense against parasite invasion?
,Question 11:
What Phagocytes bacteria?
Answer:
Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
Question 12:
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?
Answer:
Helper T cells
Question 13:
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen?
Answer:
Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
Question 14:
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility?
Answer:
The complement pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
Question 15:
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?
Answer:
An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Question 16:
Which four infections are considered fungal infections?
Answer:
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.
, Question 17:
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection?
Answer:
Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing
may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false
negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
Question 18:
What is a characteristic of exotoxins?
Answer:
Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Question 19:
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
Answer:
The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased
risk of developing colon cancer.
Question 20:
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop?
Answer:
Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Question 21:
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light? The degree of damage is not affected by the
light's wavelength.
Answer:
UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA
strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers.
These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
