NR 602
FINAL EXAM
3 FULL SET EXAMS
(WEEKS 5 – 8 COVERED)
Verified Questions & Answers With Rationales
(Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family)
Chamberlain
CONSISTING OF 300+ QUESTIONS
, NR 602 FINAL EXAM
PREVIEW PAGES BELOW
Get the Complete PDF
After Purchase
If you require further clarification or in need of
any study resources, feel free to Message me.
PREVIEW + COMPLETE PDF
,Table of Contents
NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 1 .................................................... 2
NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 2 .................................................. 35
NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 3 .................................................. 76
NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 1
1. A school-age child has recurrent diarrhea w/foul-smelling stools, excessive flatus, abd
distention, and FTT. A 2-week lactose-free trial failed to reduce sx. What is the next step in
diagnosing this condition?
A. Begin empiric antibiotics
B. Serologic testing for celiac disease
C. Start lifelong lactose restriction
D. Order immediate appendectomy
Correct Answer:
B. Serologic testing for celiac disease
Rationale:
Chronic foul-smelling diarrhea, abdominal distention, flatulence, and failure to thrive suggest
malabsorption. If lactose avoidance does not help, celiac disease should be evaluated with
serologic testing while the child is still eating gluten.
2. A healthy 14-year-old female has a dipstick urinalysis that is positive for 5-6 RBCs per
hpf but otherwise normal. What is the first question the primary care pediatric nurse
practitioner will ask this patient?
A. “Have you had recent chest pain?”
B. “When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?”
C. “Do you have a history of asthma?”
D. “Have you received rotavirus vaccine?”
Correct Answer:
B. “When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?”
Rationale:
Menstrual contamination is a common benign cause of microscopic hematuria in adolescent
females. Menstrual history should be assessed before initiating an extensive workup.
,3. What hormone has been shown to help with relieving the mood discomfort cluster of
symptoms of PMS?
A. Progesterone
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
Correct Answer:
A. Progesterone
Rationale:
PMS symptoms are hormonally mediated and occur during the luteal phase. The exam answer
identifies progesterone as helpful for mood-discomfort symptoms, although current clinical
treatment often emphasizes SSRIs, lifestyle measures, and selected hormonal therapies
depending on severity.
4. Which of the following is a diagnostic label that is listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual IV-TR?
A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B. Primary dysmenorrhea
C. Mittelschmerz
D. Endometrial hyperplasia
Correct Answer:
A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Rationale:
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is the psychiatric diagnostic label used for severe cyclic mood
symptoms associated with the menstrual cycle.
5. The least variation in menses occurs during the ages of:
A. 10-15
B. 20-40
C. 45-55
D. After menopause
Correct Answer:
B. 20-40
Rationale:
Menstrual cycles are typically most regular during the reproductive years after adolescence and
before perimenopause.
6. All menstruating women report that which type of symptoms is highest during menses?
A. Respiratory
B. Gastrointestinal
C. Neurologic paralysis
D. Urinary retention
,Correct Answer:
B. Gastrointestinal
Rationale:
Menstruation can be associated with prostaglandin-related gastrointestinal symptoms such as
nausea, cramping, bloating, and diarrhea.
7. A 6-month-old infant has a retractile testis that was noted at the 2-month well baby
exam. What will the NP do to manage this condition?
A. Reassure only and wait until puberty
B. Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist or surgeon for possible orchiopexy
C. Prescribe antibiotics
D. Begin testosterone therapy in primary care
Correct Answer:
B. Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist or surgeon for possible orchiopexy
Rationale:
A testis that remains undescended or concerning after infancy requires specialty evaluation
because persistent cryptorchidism increases risk for infertility and malignancy. True retractile
testes may be observed, but persistent abnormal position warrants referral.
8. Gonadotropin hormone-releasing agonists are recommended for only short-term use to
treat heavy bleeding due to:
A. Their many side effects, such as hot flashes
B. Their ability to cure all bleeding permanently
C. Their lack of effect on hormones
D. Their risk of causing bacterial infection
Correct Answer:
A. Their many side effects, such as hot flashes
Rationale:
GnRH agonists suppress ovarian hormones and can cause hypoestrogenic adverse effects such as
hot flashes, mood changes, vaginal dryness, and bone loss, limiting long-term use.
9. The genetic counselor has a significant role in the care of women because BRCA1 and
BRCA2 genetic mutations account for 5% to 10% of all cancer cases:
A. Cervical
B. Breast
C. Endometrial
D. Ovarian torsion
Correct Answer:
B. Breast
Rationale:
BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with hereditary breast and ovarian cancer
syndromes and account for a minority of overall breast cancer cases.
, NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 2
1. A 10-month-old infant presents with a recent history of diarrhea and is found to have
lost 12% of their body weight. According to clinical classification, which degree of
dehydration does this represent?
A. Mild dehydration
B. Moderate dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
Correct Answer:
B. Moderate dehydration
Rationale:
Pediatric dehydration is often classified by percent body-weight loss. A 12% weight loss is
clinically significant and commonly treated as moderate to severe dehydration requiring prompt
rehydration and close monitoring.
2. In a pediatric patient with massive stool loss due to diarrhea who is only being
rehydrated with plain water, which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to occur?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer:
B. Hyponatremia
Rationale:
,Replacing diarrheal losses with plain water dilutes serum sodium and fails to replace electrolytes,
increasing risk for hyponatremia.
3. Which combination of physical exam findings is considered most helpful in the clinical
determination of pediatric dehydration?
A. Fever, cough, and rash
B. CRT, skin turgor, tachypnea
C. Bradycardia, hypertension, and edema
D. Wheezing, stridor, and clubbing
Correct Answer:
B. CRT, skin turgor, tachypnea
Rationale:
Capillary refill time, skin turgor, respiratory pattern, mucous membranes, pulse quality, and
overall appearance help estimate dehydration severity.
4. An infant is brought to the clinic for excessive crying. The parents state the infant cries
for at least 4 hours a day, 4 days a week, and is 2 months old. All other exams are normal.
Which management strategy should be discouraged?
A. Swaddling the infant safely
B. Offering caregiver support and reassurance
C. Placing the infant in a car seat on top of a running dryer
D. Using soothing routines and safe sleep practices
Correct Answer:
C. Placing the infant in a car seat on top of a running dryer
Rationale:
This is unsafe because vibration can cause the car seat to fall. Colic management should focus on
safety, soothing strategies, caregiver rest, and assessment for red flags.
5. In the classic clinical presentation of appendicitis in children, what is typically the very
first sign or symptom to emerge?
A. Poorly defined periumbilical pain
B. Left shoulder pain
C. Painless jaundice
D. Hematuria
Correct Answer:
A. Poorly defined periumbilical pain
Rationale:
Appendicitis often begins with vague periumbilical pain due to visceral irritation, then localizes
to the right lower quadrant as parietal peritoneal inflammation develops.
6. Using the appendicitis scoring system (Sayed et al.), which of the following clinical
findings is weighted most heavily with 2 points?
A. Mild cough
, NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 3
1. An adolescent male comes to the clinic reporting unilateral scrotal pain, nausea, and
vomiting that began that morning. The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner palpates
,a painful, swollen testis and elicits increased pain with slight elevation of the testis (a
negative Prehn sign). What will the family nurse practitioner do:
A. Prescribe oral antibiotics and follow up in 1 week
B. Refer the adolescent immediately to a pediatric urologist or surgeon
C. Reassure the patient that this is normal puberty
D. Recommend ice and rest only
Correct Answer:
B. Refer the adolescent immediately to a pediatric urologist or surgeon
Rationale:
Sudden unilateral scrotal pain with nausea/vomiting and a negative Prehn sign is highly
concerning for testicular torsion. This is a surgical emergency because delayed treatment can
result in testicular ischemia and infertility.
2. The primary family nurse practitioner diagnoses an 8 year old child with type 1 diabetes
after a routine urine screen is positive for glucose and negative for ketones and plasma
glucose is 350 mg/dL. The child’s weight is normal and the parents report a mild increase
in thirst and urine output in the past few days. Which course of action is correct:
A. Admit the child to the hospital for initial insulin management
B. Start metformin only and follow up in 6 months
C. Restrict fluids and observe
D. Delay treatment until ketones are positive
Correct Answer:
A. Admit the child to the hospital for initial insulin management
Rationale:
New-onset type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy, education, glucose monitoring, and
assessment for ketosis or diabetic ketoacidosis risk. Hospital admission is appropriate for initial
stabilization and family teaching.
3. Which organism causes vulvovaginal candidiasis in women:
A. Candida albicans
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer:
A. Candida albicans
Rationale:
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is most commonly caused by Candida albicans and typically presents
with vulvar itching, irritation, and thick white discharge.
4. The family nurse practitioner is performing an examination on a 5 year old child who
exhibits ritualistic behaviors, avoids contact with other children, and has limited speech.
The parent reports having had concerns more than 2 years ago about autism but was told
that it was too early to diagnose. What will the nurse practitioner do first:
, NR 602
FINAL EXAM
3 FULL SET EXAMS
(WEEKS 5 – 8 COVERED)
Verified Questions & Answers With Rationales
(Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family)
Chamberlain
CONSISTING OF 300+ QUESTIONS
FINAL EXAM
3 FULL SET EXAMS
(WEEKS 5 – 8 COVERED)
Verified Questions & Answers With Rationales
(Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family)
Chamberlain
CONSISTING OF 300+ QUESTIONS
, NR 602 FINAL EXAM
PREVIEW PAGES BELOW
Get the Complete PDF
After Purchase
If you require further clarification or in need of
any study resources, feel free to Message me.
PREVIEW + COMPLETE PDF
,Table of Contents
NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 1 .................................................... 2
NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 2 .................................................. 35
NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 3 .................................................. 76
NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 1
1. A school-age child has recurrent diarrhea w/foul-smelling stools, excessive flatus, abd
distention, and FTT. A 2-week lactose-free trial failed to reduce sx. What is the next step in
diagnosing this condition?
A. Begin empiric antibiotics
B. Serologic testing for celiac disease
C. Start lifelong lactose restriction
D. Order immediate appendectomy
Correct Answer:
B. Serologic testing for celiac disease
Rationale:
Chronic foul-smelling diarrhea, abdominal distention, flatulence, and failure to thrive suggest
malabsorption. If lactose avoidance does not help, celiac disease should be evaluated with
serologic testing while the child is still eating gluten.
2. A healthy 14-year-old female has a dipstick urinalysis that is positive for 5-6 RBCs per
hpf but otherwise normal. What is the first question the primary care pediatric nurse
practitioner will ask this patient?
A. “Have you had recent chest pain?”
B. “When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?”
C. “Do you have a history of asthma?”
D. “Have you received rotavirus vaccine?”
Correct Answer:
B. “When was your last menstrual period (LMP)?”
Rationale:
Menstrual contamination is a common benign cause of microscopic hematuria in adolescent
females. Menstrual history should be assessed before initiating an extensive workup.
,3. What hormone has been shown to help with relieving the mood discomfort cluster of
symptoms of PMS?
A. Progesterone
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
Correct Answer:
A. Progesterone
Rationale:
PMS symptoms are hormonally mediated and occur during the luteal phase. The exam answer
identifies progesterone as helpful for mood-discomfort symptoms, although current clinical
treatment often emphasizes SSRIs, lifestyle measures, and selected hormonal therapies
depending on severity.
4. Which of the following is a diagnostic label that is listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual IV-TR?
A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B. Primary dysmenorrhea
C. Mittelschmerz
D. Endometrial hyperplasia
Correct Answer:
A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Rationale:
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is the psychiatric diagnostic label used for severe cyclic mood
symptoms associated with the menstrual cycle.
5. The least variation in menses occurs during the ages of:
A. 10-15
B. 20-40
C. 45-55
D. After menopause
Correct Answer:
B. 20-40
Rationale:
Menstrual cycles are typically most regular during the reproductive years after adolescence and
before perimenopause.
6. All menstruating women report that which type of symptoms is highest during menses?
A. Respiratory
B. Gastrointestinal
C. Neurologic paralysis
D. Urinary retention
,Correct Answer:
B. Gastrointestinal
Rationale:
Menstruation can be associated with prostaglandin-related gastrointestinal symptoms such as
nausea, cramping, bloating, and diarrhea.
7. A 6-month-old infant has a retractile testis that was noted at the 2-month well baby
exam. What will the NP do to manage this condition?
A. Reassure only and wait until puberty
B. Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist or surgeon for possible orchiopexy
C. Prescribe antibiotics
D. Begin testosterone therapy in primary care
Correct Answer:
B. Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist or surgeon for possible orchiopexy
Rationale:
A testis that remains undescended or concerning after infancy requires specialty evaluation
because persistent cryptorchidism increases risk for infertility and malignancy. True retractile
testes may be observed, but persistent abnormal position warrants referral.
8. Gonadotropin hormone-releasing agonists are recommended for only short-term use to
treat heavy bleeding due to:
A. Their many side effects, such as hot flashes
B. Their ability to cure all bleeding permanently
C. Their lack of effect on hormones
D. Their risk of causing bacterial infection
Correct Answer:
A. Their many side effects, such as hot flashes
Rationale:
GnRH agonists suppress ovarian hormones and can cause hypoestrogenic adverse effects such as
hot flashes, mood changes, vaginal dryness, and bone loss, limiting long-term use.
9. The genetic counselor has a significant role in the care of women because BRCA1 and
BRCA2 genetic mutations account for 5% to 10% of all cancer cases:
A. Cervical
B. Breast
C. Endometrial
D. Ovarian torsion
Correct Answer:
B. Breast
Rationale:
BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with hereditary breast and ovarian cancer
syndromes and account for a minority of overall breast cancer cases.
, NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 2
1. A 10-month-old infant presents with a recent history of diarrhea and is found to have
lost 12% of their body weight. According to clinical classification, which degree of
dehydration does this represent?
A. Mild dehydration
B. Moderate dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
Correct Answer:
B. Moderate dehydration
Rationale:
Pediatric dehydration is often classified by percent body-weight loss. A 12% weight loss is
clinically significant and commonly treated as moderate to severe dehydration requiring prompt
rehydration and close monitoring.
2. In a pediatric patient with massive stool loss due to diarrhea who is only being
rehydrated with plain water, which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to occur?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer:
B. Hyponatremia
Rationale:
,Replacing diarrheal losses with plain water dilutes serum sodium and fails to replace electrolytes,
increasing risk for hyponatremia.
3. Which combination of physical exam findings is considered most helpful in the clinical
determination of pediatric dehydration?
A. Fever, cough, and rash
B. CRT, skin turgor, tachypnea
C. Bradycardia, hypertension, and edema
D. Wheezing, stridor, and clubbing
Correct Answer:
B. CRT, skin turgor, tachypnea
Rationale:
Capillary refill time, skin turgor, respiratory pattern, mucous membranes, pulse quality, and
overall appearance help estimate dehydration severity.
4. An infant is brought to the clinic for excessive crying. The parents state the infant cries
for at least 4 hours a day, 4 days a week, and is 2 months old. All other exams are normal.
Which management strategy should be discouraged?
A. Swaddling the infant safely
B. Offering caregiver support and reassurance
C. Placing the infant in a car seat on top of a running dryer
D. Using soothing routines and safe sleep practices
Correct Answer:
C. Placing the infant in a car seat on top of a running dryer
Rationale:
This is unsafe because vibration can cause the car seat to fall. Colic management should focus on
safety, soothing strategies, caregiver rest, and assessment for red flags.
5. In the classic clinical presentation of appendicitis in children, what is typically the very
first sign or symptom to emerge?
A. Poorly defined periumbilical pain
B. Left shoulder pain
C. Painless jaundice
D. Hematuria
Correct Answer:
A. Poorly defined periumbilical pain
Rationale:
Appendicitis often begins with vague periumbilical pain due to visceral irritation, then localizes
to the right lower quadrant as parietal peritoneal inflammation develops.
6. Using the appendicitis scoring system (Sayed et al.), which of the following clinical
findings is weighted most heavily with 2 points?
A. Mild cough
, NR 602 FINAL EXAM SET 3
1. An adolescent male comes to the clinic reporting unilateral scrotal pain, nausea, and
vomiting that began that morning. The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner palpates
,a painful, swollen testis and elicits increased pain with slight elevation of the testis (a
negative Prehn sign). What will the family nurse practitioner do:
A. Prescribe oral antibiotics and follow up in 1 week
B. Refer the adolescent immediately to a pediatric urologist or surgeon
C. Reassure the patient that this is normal puberty
D. Recommend ice and rest only
Correct Answer:
B. Refer the adolescent immediately to a pediatric urologist or surgeon
Rationale:
Sudden unilateral scrotal pain with nausea/vomiting and a negative Prehn sign is highly
concerning for testicular torsion. This is a surgical emergency because delayed treatment can
result in testicular ischemia and infertility.
2. The primary family nurse practitioner diagnoses an 8 year old child with type 1 diabetes
after a routine urine screen is positive for glucose and negative for ketones and plasma
glucose is 350 mg/dL. The child’s weight is normal and the parents report a mild increase
in thirst and urine output in the past few days. Which course of action is correct:
A. Admit the child to the hospital for initial insulin management
B. Start metformin only and follow up in 6 months
C. Restrict fluids and observe
D. Delay treatment until ketones are positive
Correct Answer:
A. Admit the child to the hospital for initial insulin management
Rationale:
New-onset type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy, education, glucose monitoring, and
assessment for ketosis or diabetic ketoacidosis risk. Hospital admission is appropriate for initial
stabilization and family teaching.
3. Which organism causes vulvovaginal candidiasis in women:
A. Candida albicans
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer:
A. Candida albicans
Rationale:
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is most commonly caused by Candida albicans and typically presents
with vulvar itching, irritation, and thick white discharge.
4. The family nurse practitioner is performing an examination on a 5 year old child who
exhibits ritualistic behaviors, avoids contact with other children, and has limited speech.
The parent reports having had concerns more than 2 years ago about autism but was told
that it was too early to diagnose. What will the nurse practitioner do first:
, NR 602
FINAL EXAM
3 FULL SET EXAMS
(WEEKS 5 – 8 COVERED)
Verified Questions & Answers With Rationales
(Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family)
Chamberlain
CONSISTING OF 300+ QUESTIONS
