NR 603 WEEK 5: PRIMARY CARE OF
CHILDBEARING & CHILDREARING
FAMILY EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of
painless vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placental abruption
B. Preterm labor
C. Cervical incompetence
D. Placenta previa
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Placenta previa is classically characterized by painless, bright
red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. Placental abruption usually presents with
painful bleeding.
,2. According to Naegele’s rule, if a patient’s last menstrual period (LMP) was April 10, what is
her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. January 10
B. January 3
C. January 17
D. December 17
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Naegele’s rule adds 7 days to the LMP, subtracts 3 months, and
adds 1 year. April 10 + 7 days = April 17; minus 3 months = January 17.
3. Which of the following is a definitive diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia?
A. Edema of the lower extremities and face
B. Blood pressure >130/80 mmHg before 20 weeks
C. Presence of seizures in a pregnant woman
D. Blood pressure >140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks with proteinuria
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Preeclampsia is defined by hypertension (SBP ≥140 or DBP ≥90)
occurring after 20 weeks gestation in a previously normotensive woman, typically
accompanied by proteinuria.
, 4. A 24-year-old G1P0 at 26 weeks gestation undergoes a 1-hour glucose challenge test. The
result is 145 mg/dL. What is the next appropriate step?
A. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
B. Repeat the 1-hour test in two weeks
C. Diagnose gestational diabetes immediately
D. Start the patient on insulin therapy
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: A 1-hour glucose challenge test result >130-140 mg/dL is a
positive screen and requires a follow-up 3-hour OGTT for definitive diagnosis of gestational
diabetes.
5. At what age should the first dose of the Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine be
administered to a healthy child?
A. 6 months
B. 2 years
C. 12-15 months
D. 4-6 years
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The CDC recommends the first dose of MMR at 12-15 months of
age, followed by a second dose at 4-6 years.
CHILDBEARING & CHILDREARING
FAMILY EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of
painless vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placental abruption
B. Preterm labor
C. Cervical incompetence
D. Placenta previa
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Placenta previa is classically characterized by painless, bright
red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. Placental abruption usually presents with
painful bleeding.
,2. According to Naegele’s rule, if a patient’s last menstrual period (LMP) was April 10, what is
her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. January 10
B. January 3
C. January 17
D. December 17
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Naegele’s rule adds 7 days to the LMP, subtracts 3 months, and
adds 1 year. April 10 + 7 days = April 17; minus 3 months = January 17.
3. Which of the following is a definitive diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia?
A. Edema of the lower extremities and face
B. Blood pressure >130/80 mmHg before 20 weeks
C. Presence of seizures in a pregnant woman
D. Blood pressure >140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks with proteinuria
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Preeclampsia is defined by hypertension (SBP ≥140 or DBP ≥90)
occurring after 20 weeks gestation in a previously normotensive woman, typically
accompanied by proteinuria.
, 4. A 24-year-old G1P0 at 26 weeks gestation undergoes a 1-hour glucose challenge test. The
result is 145 mg/dL. What is the next appropriate step?
A. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
B. Repeat the 1-hour test in two weeks
C. Diagnose gestational diabetes immediately
D. Start the patient on insulin therapy
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: A 1-hour glucose challenge test result >130-140 mg/dL is a
positive screen and requires a follow-up 3-hour OGTT for definitive diagnosis of gestational
diabetes.
5. At what age should the first dose of the Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine be
administered to a healthy child?
A. 6 months
B. 2 years
C. 12-15 months
D. 4-6 years
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The CDC recommends the first dose of MMR at 12-15 months of
age, followed by a second dose at 4-6 years.
