FAA INSTRUMENT PILOT TEST 2026/2027 | KING SCHOOLS
INSTRUMENT RATING PRACTICE QUESTIONS & STUDY GUIDE
(Refer to Figure 192.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME- B
procedure? - correct answer ✔✔One VOR receiver and DME.
(Refer to Figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast? -
correct answer ✔✔Variable in direction at 6 knots.
What altitude should be entered for your cruising level of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs,
each at a different altitude? - correct answer ✔✔Altitude for first leg.
During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation, - correct answer ✔✔the aircraft must
have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF?
KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719
1/2SM -RA FG FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ= - correct answer ✔✔Wind
shear at 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure? -
correct answer ✔✔Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace? - correct answer ✔✔2,500 feet
When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR
flight plan and receive a clearance before - correct answer ✔✔Entering Class E Aispace
If the ILS outer marker is inoperative, you may substitute - correct answer ✔✔a compass locator or
precision radar.
(Refer to Figure 150.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned. - correct answer
✔✔climbing turn to the right
(Refer to Figure 24.) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V187 between Grand
Junction, Walker Airport and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport? - correct answer ✔✔15,000 feet
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds
from a VORTAC? - correct answer ✔✔The DME component is operative and the VOR component is
inoperative.
You may cancel an IFR flight plan - correct answer ✔✔if in VMC outside class A airspace.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? - correct answer ✔✔Seldom longer than 15
minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
, What happens to residual ice that remains after deice boots are inflated and shed ice? - correct answer
✔✔Residual ice increases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature.
Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground - correct answer ✔✔during periods of
strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated
altitude, the true airspeed will - correct answer ✔✔increase and true altitude will increase.
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is
forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first
airport of intended landing, - correct answer ✔✔fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at
normal cruising speed.
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that - correct answer
✔✔the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be
observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind? - correct answer ✔✔PITCH ATTITUDE:
Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases,
then increases to approach speed.
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport
conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)? - correct answer ✔✔Chart
Supplement, Distant (D) NOTAMs, and FDC NOTAMs.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a
heading of 090° to a heading of 300°? - correct answer ✔✔50 seconds.
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight? - correct answer ✔✔A predetermined geographical
position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach
(Refer to Figure 87.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in
the Lake Charles area? - correct answer ✔✔122.2, 122.3.
An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within - correct answer ✔✔24
calender months
Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn? - correct answer ✔✔Ball of the turn coordinator.
A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is - correct
answer ✔✔periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
What is the minimum altitude that is prescribed for off airways IFR flights over mountainous terrain? -
correct answer ✔✔2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of the
course.
INSTRUMENT RATING PRACTICE QUESTIONS & STUDY GUIDE
(Refer to Figure 192.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME- B
procedure? - correct answer ✔✔One VOR receiver and DME.
(Refer to Figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast? -
correct answer ✔✔Variable in direction at 6 knots.
What altitude should be entered for your cruising level of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs,
each at a different altitude? - correct answer ✔✔Altitude for first leg.
During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation, - correct answer ✔✔the aircraft must
have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF?
KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719
1/2SM -RA FG FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ= - correct answer ✔✔Wind
shear at 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure? -
correct answer ✔✔Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace? - correct answer ✔✔2,500 feet
When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR
flight plan and receive a clearance before - correct answer ✔✔Entering Class E Aispace
If the ILS outer marker is inoperative, you may substitute - correct answer ✔✔a compass locator or
precision radar.
(Refer to Figure 150.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned. - correct answer
✔✔climbing turn to the right
(Refer to Figure 24.) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V187 between Grand
Junction, Walker Airport and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport? - correct answer ✔✔15,000 feet
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds
from a VORTAC? - correct answer ✔✔The DME component is operative and the VOR component is
inoperative.
You may cancel an IFR flight plan - correct answer ✔✔if in VMC outside class A airspace.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? - correct answer ✔✔Seldom longer than 15
minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
, What happens to residual ice that remains after deice boots are inflated and shed ice? - correct answer
✔✔Residual ice increases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature.
Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground - correct answer ✔✔during periods of
strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated
altitude, the true airspeed will - correct answer ✔✔increase and true altitude will increase.
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is
forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first
airport of intended landing, - correct answer ✔✔fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at
normal cruising speed.
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that - correct answer
✔✔the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be
observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind? - correct answer ✔✔PITCH ATTITUDE:
Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases,
then increases to approach speed.
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport
conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)? - correct answer ✔✔Chart
Supplement, Distant (D) NOTAMs, and FDC NOTAMs.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a
heading of 090° to a heading of 300°? - correct answer ✔✔50 seconds.
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight? - correct answer ✔✔A predetermined geographical
position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach
(Refer to Figure 87.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in
the Lake Charles area? - correct answer ✔✔122.2, 122.3.
An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within - correct answer ✔✔24
calender months
Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn? - correct answer ✔✔Ball of the turn coordinator.
A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is - correct
answer ✔✔periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
What is the minimum altitude that is prescribed for off airways IFR flights over mountainous terrain? -
correct answer ✔✔2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of the
course.
