WGU D487 Secure Software Design (2026/2027) – Test Bank Set 3
exam verified with correct answers plus rationales
1. What is the primary goal of integrating security into the Software Development Life
Cycle (SDLC)?
A. To ensure the software is delivered on time
B. To shift security left by identifying and mitigating risks as early as possible
C. To reduce the number of developers needed on a project
D. To eliminate the need for penetration testing
Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of a secure SDLC is to "shift security left," meaning security
practices are integrated during requirements, design, and development phases, rather than
waiting until deployment. This proactive approach reduces the cost and effort of fixing
vulnerabilities and improves overall software security posture .
2. A software designer is using the principle of least privilege. This means:
A. Users and processes have the minimum permissions needed to perform their functions
B. Users have all permissions by default
C. Users have no permissions whatsoever
D. Users have maximum permissions to ensure functionality
Answer: A
Rationale: The Principle of Least Privilege (PoLP) mandates that any user, process, or system
should be granted the minimum levels of access necessary to perform its authorized functions.
This limits the potential damage from an accident or attack .
3. Which principle involves implementing multiple, overlapping security controls so that if
one layer fails, others remain to protect the asset?
A. Economy of Mechanism
B. Defense in Depth
C. Fail-Safe Defaults
D. Separation of Duties
Answer: B
Rationale: Defense in Depth employs multiple layered security controls (physical, network, host,
application, data) so that the failure of a single layer does not compromise the entire system .
4. A system is designed so that when an error occurs, it denies access by default and logs
the event. This is an example of which secure design principle?
A. Open Design
B. Complete Mediation
C. Fail Securely
D. Least Common Mechanism
Answer: C
Rationale: The Fail Secure (or Fail-Safe Defaults) principle states that when a system fails, it
should do so in a secure state—typically by denying access and logging the event, rather than
allowing unauthorized access .
,5. What is the primary purpose of conducting threat modeling during the design phase?
A. To write the final code for the application
B. To identify potential security risks and vulnerabilities in the system architecture
C. To perform user acceptance testing
D. To optimize the application's performance metrics
Answer: B
Rationale: Threat modeling is a systematic process to identify, quantify, and address the security
risks associated with an application by analyzing its architecture, data flows, and potential
threats. It helps map risks to mitigate them proactively .
6. In the STRIDE threat model, what does the 'R' stand for?
A. Risk
B. Repudiation
C. Response
D. Recovery
Answer: B
Rationale: STRIDE is a threat modeling methodology where each letter represents a category of
threat: Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and
Elevation of Privilege .
7. Which security goal is defined by "guarding against improper information modification
or destruction and ensuring information non-repudiation and authenticity"?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication
Answer: B
Rationale: Integrity ensures that data is accurate and has not been altered by unauthorized
parties. This includes protecting against improper modification and ensuring non-repudiation
and authenticity of information .
8. In the DREAD risk assessment model, what does the 'A' represent?
A. Authentication
B. Affected Users
C. Audit
D. Authorization
Answer: B
Rationale: DREAD is a risk assessment model used to evaluate threats. The acronym stands for
Damage potential, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, and Discoverability .
9. The software security team contracts with an independent firm to simulate attacks on
deployed products and report results to leadership. Which category of secure software best
practices is the team performing?
A. Attack Modeling
B. Architecture Analysis
C. Penetration Testing
D. Code Review
, Answer: C
Rationale: Engaging an independent firm to simulate attacks is a form of Penetration Testing. It
involves authorized simulated attacks on a system to evaluate its security and identify
vulnerabilities that could be exploited .
10. When storing user credentials in an application database, what is the most secure
practice?
A. Store credentials as clear text for easy retrieval
B. Store credentials using Base64 encoding
C. Store credentials using application logic to encrypt them
D. Store credentials using salted hashes
Answer: D
Rationale: Storing credentials using salted hashes is the most secure practice. Hashing is a one-
way process that converts a password to ciphertext, and salting adds random characters before
hashing to obfuscate the actual password and prevent rainbow table attacks .
11. According to NIST's Secure Software Development Framework (SSDF), which practice
involves defining security requirements based on risk and compliance needs?
A. Prepare the Organization
B. Protect the Software
C. Define Security Requirements
D. Respond to Vulnerabilities
Answer: C
Rationale: The NIST SSDF framework includes PO.1, which covers defining security
requirements based on risk tolerance, compliance, and business needs .
12. A development team is following the Microsoft SDL. In which phase should security
requirements be explicitly defined and documented?
A. Implementation
B. Verification
C. Requirements
D. Release
Answer: C
Rationale: In the Microsoft SDL, security requirements are defined during the Requirements
phase. This establishes what security controls the application must implement before coding
begins .
13. What is the purpose of a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) plan?
A. To assess the financial cost of a new software product
B. To ensure personal information is protected when external entities are involved
C. To determine the marketing strategy for the product
D. To schedule the development team's work iterations
Answer: B
Rationale: The privacy impact statement requirement that defines how personal information will
be protected when authorized or independent external entities are involved is a third-party
requirement. It includes stipulations for data handling agreements and security measures .
exam verified with correct answers plus rationales
1. What is the primary goal of integrating security into the Software Development Life
Cycle (SDLC)?
A. To ensure the software is delivered on time
B. To shift security left by identifying and mitigating risks as early as possible
C. To reduce the number of developers needed on a project
D. To eliminate the need for penetration testing
Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of a secure SDLC is to "shift security left," meaning security
practices are integrated during requirements, design, and development phases, rather than
waiting until deployment. This proactive approach reduces the cost and effort of fixing
vulnerabilities and improves overall software security posture .
2. A software designer is using the principle of least privilege. This means:
A. Users and processes have the minimum permissions needed to perform their functions
B. Users have all permissions by default
C. Users have no permissions whatsoever
D. Users have maximum permissions to ensure functionality
Answer: A
Rationale: The Principle of Least Privilege (PoLP) mandates that any user, process, or system
should be granted the minimum levels of access necessary to perform its authorized functions.
This limits the potential damage from an accident or attack .
3. Which principle involves implementing multiple, overlapping security controls so that if
one layer fails, others remain to protect the asset?
A. Economy of Mechanism
B. Defense in Depth
C. Fail-Safe Defaults
D. Separation of Duties
Answer: B
Rationale: Defense in Depth employs multiple layered security controls (physical, network, host,
application, data) so that the failure of a single layer does not compromise the entire system .
4. A system is designed so that when an error occurs, it denies access by default and logs
the event. This is an example of which secure design principle?
A. Open Design
B. Complete Mediation
C. Fail Securely
D. Least Common Mechanism
Answer: C
Rationale: The Fail Secure (or Fail-Safe Defaults) principle states that when a system fails, it
should do so in a secure state—typically by denying access and logging the event, rather than
allowing unauthorized access .
,5. What is the primary purpose of conducting threat modeling during the design phase?
A. To write the final code for the application
B. To identify potential security risks and vulnerabilities in the system architecture
C. To perform user acceptance testing
D. To optimize the application's performance metrics
Answer: B
Rationale: Threat modeling is a systematic process to identify, quantify, and address the security
risks associated with an application by analyzing its architecture, data flows, and potential
threats. It helps map risks to mitigate them proactively .
6. In the STRIDE threat model, what does the 'R' stand for?
A. Risk
B. Repudiation
C. Response
D. Recovery
Answer: B
Rationale: STRIDE is a threat modeling methodology where each letter represents a category of
threat: Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and
Elevation of Privilege .
7. Which security goal is defined by "guarding against improper information modification
or destruction and ensuring information non-repudiation and authenticity"?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication
Answer: B
Rationale: Integrity ensures that data is accurate and has not been altered by unauthorized
parties. This includes protecting against improper modification and ensuring non-repudiation
and authenticity of information .
8. In the DREAD risk assessment model, what does the 'A' represent?
A. Authentication
B. Affected Users
C. Audit
D. Authorization
Answer: B
Rationale: DREAD is a risk assessment model used to evaluate threats. The acronym stands for
Damage potential, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, and Discoverability .
9. The software security team contracts with an independent firm to simulate attacks on
deployed products and report results to leadership. Which category of secure software best
practices is the team performing?
A. Attack Modeling
B. Architecture Analysis
C. Penetration Testing
D. Code Review
, Answer: C
Rationale: Engaging an independent firm to simulate attacks is a form of Penetration Testing. It
involves authorized simulated attacks on a system to evaluate its security and identify
vulnerabilities that could be exploited .
10. When storing user credentials in an application database, what is the most secure
practice?
A. Store credentials as clear text for easy retrieval
B. Store credentials using Base64 encoding
C. Store credentials using application logic to encrypt them
D. Store credentials using salted hashes
Answer: D
Rationale: Storing credentials using salted hashes is the most secure practice. Hashing is a one-
way process that converts a password to ciphertext, and salting adds random characters before
hashing to obfuscate the actual password and prevent rainbow table attacks .
11. According to NIST's Secure Software Development Framework (SSDF), which practice
involves defining security requirements based on risk and compliance needs?
A. Prepare the Organization
B. Protect the Software
C. Define Security Requirements
D. Respond to Vulnerabilities
Answer: C
Rationale: The NIST SSDF framework includes PO.1, which covers defining security
requirements based on risk tolerance, compliance, and business needs .
12. A development team is following the Microsoft SDL. In which phase should security
requirements be explicitly defined and documented?
A. Implementation
B. Verification
C. Requirements
D. Release
Answer: C
Rationale: In the Microsoft SDL, security requirements are defined during the Requirements
phase. This establishes what security controls the application must implement before coding
begins .
13. What is the purpose of a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) plan?
A. To assess the financial cost of a new software product
B. To ensure personal information is protected when external entities are involved
C. To determine the marketing strategy for the product
D. To schedule the development team's work iterations
Answer: B
Rationale: The privacy impact statement requirement that defines how personal information will
be protected when authorized or independent external entities are involved is a third-party
requirement. It includes stipulations for data handling agreements and security measures .
