NUR 230 EXAM 3 REVIEW -
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
2026 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT.
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 230 EXAM 3 REVIEW - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT.. It contains 140
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 230 3 Review AND 2026 Update 100 Correct NUR 230 Medical-surgical
Nursing III Complex CARE Upper-level Undergraduate Nursing YEAR 3/4
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-24 Acute, Finding, Develops, Medication, Appropriate
Safety AND Infection Control 25-48 Heart, Finding, Consistent, Medication, Failure
Health Promotion AND 49-72 Finding, Requires, Appropriate, Infusion, Acute
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 73-96 Finding, Acute, Kidney, Syndrome, Appropriate
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Finding, Acute, Shock, Potassium, Value
Pharmacological Therapies 121-140 Finding, Acute, Intervention, Prescribed, Indicates
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
In a patient with septic shock and a pulmonary artery catheter, the cardiac output is 8.2
L/min, systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is 420 dynes-sec-cm, and mixed venous oxygen
saturation (SvO) is 82%. Which hemodynamic pattern is most consistent with these
findings?
A. Hypovolemic shock with compensatory B. Distributive shock with vasodilation and
vasoconstriction hyperdynamic circulation
C. Cardiogenic shock with low cardiac D. Obstructive shock due to increased
output and high SVR intrathoracic pressure
Correct: B - Distributive shock with vasodilation and hyperdynamic circulation
Rationale:High cardiac output, low SVR, and elevated SvO ‚ indicate distributive shock (e.g.,
septic) with peripheral shunting and vasodilation. Hypovolemic and cardiogenic shocks
typically present with low cardiac output and high SVR. Obstructive shock may have variable
CO but not this combination.
Q2.
A patient on volume-controlled ventilation has just had a tracheostomy. Which finding
indicates the need for immediate cuff pressure adjustment?
A. Cuff pressure of 20 cm HO B. Audible air leak around the cuff during
inspiration
C. Minimal leak technique achieving 15 cm D. Cuff pressure of 25 cm HO with no leak
HO
Correct: B - Audible air leak around the cuff during inspiration
Rationale:An audible air leak indicates inadequate cuff seal, risking aspiration and loss of
tidal volume; cuff pressure should be adjusted to the minimal occlusive volume. Pressures of
20-25 cm HO are generally acceptable if no leak is present.
Q3.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has a PaO of 58 mm Hg on an
FiO of 0.8 and a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 10 cm HO. Which intervention
should the nurse anticipate to improve oxygenation?
A. Decrease PEEP to 5 cm HO to reduce B. Increase FiO to 1.0 and maintain current
barotrauma PEEP
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
C. Initiate prone positioning to improve D. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation
ventilation-perfusion matching with lower tidal volumes
Correct: C - Initiate prone positioning to improve ventilation-perfusion matching
Rationale:Prone positioning recruits dependent lung regions and improves V/Q matching in
moderate-to-severe ARDS, reducing mortality. Lowering PEEP would worsen oxygenation.
Increasing FiO alone may be insufficient and risks oxygen toxicity. Pressure-controlled
ventilation may not directly improve oxygenation.
Q4.
A patient with acute liver failure develops asterixis and confusion. Which laboratory
finding most directly supports a diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Elevated serum ammonia level B. Elevated direct bilirubin
C. Prolonged prothrombin time D. Decreased serum albumin
Correct: A - Elevated serum ammonia level
Rationale:Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with elevated ammonia, which crosses the
blood-brain barrier and alters neurotransmission. Bilirubin, PT, and albumin reflect
synthetic/excretory dysfunction but are not specific to encephalopathy.
Q5.
A patient on continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) for acute kidney injury
develops hypothermia. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Increase the dialysate temperature B. Decrease the blood flow rate
C. Add a warming blanket and adjust room D. Administer intravenous meperidine for
temperature shivering
Correct: C - Add a warming blanket and adjust room temperature
Rationale:CRRT can cause heat loss through the extracorporeal circuit; external warming is
the primary intervention. Dialysate temperature is usually not adjusted for this purpose.
Decreasing blood flow may not address heat loss. Meperidine is not indicated for shivering in
this context.
Q6.
A patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage develops acute vasospasm. Which medication
is the priority to administer?
A. Nimodipine B. Mannitol
C. Phenytoin D. Heparin
Page 4
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
2026 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT.
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 230 EXAM 3 REVIEW - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT.. It contains 140
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 230 3 Review AND 2026 Update 100 Correct NUR 230 Medical-surgical
Nursing III Complex CARE Upper-level Undergraduate Nursing YEAR 3/4
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-24 Acute, Finding, Develops, Medication, Appropriate
Safety AND Infection Control 25-48 Heart, Finding, Consistent, Medication, Failure
Health Promotion AND 49-72 Finding, Requires, Appropriate, Infusion, Acute
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 73-96 Finding, Acute, Kidney, Syndrome, Appropriate
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Finding, Acute, Shock, Potassium, Value
Pharmacological Therapies 121-140 Finding, Acute, Intervention, Prescribed, Indicates
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
In a patient with septic shock and a pulmonary artery catheter, the cardiac output is 8.2
L/min, systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is 420 dynes-sec-cm, and mixed venous oxygen
saturation (SvO) is 82%. Which hemodynamic pattern is most consistent with these
findings?
A. Hypovolemic shock with compensatory B. Distributive shock with vasodilation and
vasoconstriction hyperdynamic circulation
C. Cardiogenic shock with low cardiac D. Obstructive shock due to increased
output and high SVR intrathoracic pressure
Correct: B - Distributive shock with vasodilation and hyperdynamic circulation
Rationale:High cardiac output, low SVR, and elevated SvO ‚ indicate distributive shock (e.g.,
septic) with peripheral shunting and vasodilation. Hypovolemic and cardiogenic shocks
typically present with low cardiac output and high SVR. Obstructive shock may have variable
CO but not this combination.
Q2.
A patient on volume-controlled ventilation has just had a tracheostomy. Which finding
indicates the need for immediate cuff pressure adjustment?
A. Cuff pressure of 20 cm HO B. Audible air leak around the cuff during
inspiration
C. Minimal leak technique achieving 15 cm D. Cuff pressure of 25 cm HO with no leak
HO
Correct: B - Audible air leak around the cuff during inspiration
Rationale:An audible air leak indicates inadequate cuff seal, risking aspiration and loss of
tidal volume; cuff pressure should be adjusted to the minimal occlusive volume. Pressures of
20-25 cm HO are generally acceptable if no leak is present.
Q3.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has a PaO of 58 mm Hg on an
FiO of 0.8 and a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 10 cm HO. Which intervention
should the nurse anticipate to improve oxygenation?
A. Decrease PEEP to 5 cm HO to reduce B. Increase FiO to 1.0 and maintain current
barotrauma PEEP
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
C. Initiate prone positioning to improve D. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation
ventilation-perfusion matching with lower tidal volumes
Correct: C - Initiate prone positioning to improve ventilation-perfusion matching
Rationale:Prone positioning recruits dependent lung regions and improves V/Q matching in
moderate-to-severe ARDS, reducing mortality. Lowering PEEP would worsen oxygenation.
Increasing FiO alone may be insufficient and risks oxygen toxicity. Pressure-controlled
ventilation may not directly improve oxygenation.
Q4.
A patient with acute liver failure develops asterixis and confusion. Which laboratory
finding most directly supports a diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Elevated serum ammonia level B. Elevated direct bilirubin
C. Prolonged prothrombin time D. Decreased serum albumin
Correct: A - Elevated serum ammonia level
Rationale:Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with elevated ammonia, which crosses the
blood-brain barrier and alters neurotransmission. Bilirubin, PT, and albumin reflect
synthetic/excretory dysfunction but are not specific to encephalopathy.
Q5.
A patient on continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) for acute kidney injury
develops hypothermia. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Increase the dialysate temperature B. Decrease the blood flow rate
C. Add a warming blanket and adjust room D. Administer intravenous meperidine for
temperature shivering
Correct: C - Add a warming blanket and adjust room temperature
Rationale:CRRT can cause heat loss through the extracorporeal circuit; external warming is
the primary intervention. Dialysate temperature is usually not adjusted for this purpose.
Decreasing blood flow may not address heat loss. Meperidine is not indicated for shivering in
this context.
Q6.
A patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage develops acute vasospasm. Which medication
is the priority to administer?
A. Nimodipine B. Mannitol
C. Phenytoin D. Heparin
Page 4
