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128 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
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NUR 230/231/254 MATERNAL EXAM 1 (VERSION A) | FULL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATED |
100% CORRECT .. It contains 128 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and
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Review Summary 128 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 230/231/254 Maternal 1 Version A FULL AND 2026 Updated 100 Correct
NUR 230/231/254 Maternal 1 Version A FULL AND 2026 Updated 100 Correct University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Antepartum Assessment 1-22 Weeks, Gestation, Finding, Fetal, Nursing
AND CARE
Intrapartum Assessment 23-44 Weeks, Intervention, Finding, Fetal, Gestation
AND CARE
Postpartum Assessment 45-66 Weeks, Gestation, Finding, Labor, Presents
AND CARE
Newborn Assessment AND 67-88 Finding, Fetal, Postpartum, Appropriate, Weeks
CARE
Complications OF Pregnancy 89-110 Finding, Weeks Gestation, Magnesium, Labor, Postpartum
Maternal AND Fetal Nutrition 111-128 Weeks Gestation, Appropriate, Severe, Placenta Previa,
Intervention
TOTAL 128 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Antepartum Assessment AND CARE
Q1.
A primigravid client at 28 weeks gestation has a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test
(GCT) result of 155 mg/dL. Which action represents the most evidence-based next step in
management?
A. Immediately initiate insulin therapy to B. Repeat the 1-hour GCT in 4 weeks to
prevent fetal macrosomia. confirm the diagnosis.
C. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance D. Prescribe metformin 500 mg twice daily
test (OGTT) after an overnight fast. as first-line pharmacologic therapy.
Correct: C - Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) after an overnight fast.
Rationale:A positive 1-hour GCT ("e140 mg/dL) warrants a diagnostic 3-hour OGTT to confirm
gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Insulin is not initiated without a confirmed diagnosis, and
metformin is not first-line before diagnosis. Repeating the GCT is not the standard diagnostic
pathway.
Q2.
A client at 39 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 158/102 mm Hg and 2+
proteinuria on dipstick. Which laboratory finding most strongly supports a diagnosis of
severe preeclampsia rather than gestational hypertension?
A. Platelet count of 120,000/µL B. Serum creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL
C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) of 45 D. Uric acid of 6.2 mg/dL
U/L
Correct: A - Platelet count of 120,000/µL
Rationale:Severe preeclampsia is characterized by thrombocytopenia (platelets <100,000/µL)
or other severe features. A platelet count of 120,000/µL is within normal range and does not
indicate severe disease. The other values are borderline or normal and do not meet the
criteria for severe features.
Q3.
During the active phase of labor, a client's contractions are every 2-3 minutes, lasting 60
seconds, with moderate intensity. The fetal heart rate (FHR) shows a baseline of 140 bpm,
moderate variability, and no decelerations. Which nursing intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Reposition the client to a left lateral B. Continue to monitor and document the
position and administer oxygen via face findings, as they indicate fetal well-being.
mask.
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, Section A - Antepartum Assessment AND CARE
C. Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery D. Increase the rate of oxytocin infusion to
due to signs of fetal compromise. augment labor progress.
Correct: B - Continue to monitor and document the findings, as they indicate fetal
well-being.
Rationale:The FHR tracing is reassuring: baseline 140 bpm, moderate variability, and no
decelerations indicate fetal well-being. No intervention is required. Oxygen and repositioning
are indicated for non-reassuring patterns. Increasing oxytocin is not indicated without
evidence of inadequate contractions or fetal intolerance.
Q4.
A postpartum client who delivered vaginally 6 hours ago has a fundus that is boggy and
deviated to the right, with moderate lochia rubra. Which nursing action is the priority?
A. Massage the fundus firmly and then B. Encourage the client to ambulate to
assess for expulsion of clots. promote uterine tone.
C. Administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM D. Document the findings and continue
as ordered for uterine atony. frequent assessments.
Correct: A - Massage the fundus firmly and then assess for expulsion of clots.
Rationale:A boggy fundus deviated to the right suggests bladder distention, which can cause
uterine atony. The priority is to have the client empty her bladder (e.g., void or catheterize)
and then massage the fundus to promote contraction. Methylergonovine may be given after
bladder emptying if atony persists, but the immediate action is to address the bladder and
massage.
Q5.
Which maternal physiologic adaptation during pregnancy most directly explains the
increased risk of venous thromboembolism in the postpartum period?
A. Decreased plasma colloid osmotic B. Increased levels of clotting factors and
pressure leading to edema and venous decreased fibrinolysis, combined with
stasis. venous stasis from uterine compression.
C. Elevated cardiac output and increased D. Reduced red blood cell mass causing
venous return from the lower extremities. hemoconcentration and hyperviscosity.
Correct: B - Increased levels of clotting factors and decreased fibrinolysis, combined with
venous stasis from uterine compression.
Rationale:Pregnancy induces a hypercoagulable state with increased clotting factors (I, VII,
VIII, IX, X) and decreased fibrinolysis, which persists into the postpartum period. Venous
stasis from uterine compression and immobility further increases VTE risk. The other options
are not primary mechanisms.
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