NR 566 FINAL EXAM NEWEST
2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
NR566 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
FOR CARE OF THE FAMILY FINAL EXAM
REVIEW
COMPLETE 100 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
EXAM OVERVIEW
The NR 566 Advanced Pharmacology for Care of the Family Final
Exam at Chamberlain University is a comprehensive assessment
covering pharmacotherapeutic management across the lifespan. The
exam is non-cumulative and consists of 100 multiple-choice
questions with a 120-minute time limit (approximately 1.2 minutes per
question).
Content Coverage by Week:
● Week 5: Pharmacotherapy for Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Skin
● Week 6: Pharmacotherapy for Mental Health
● Week 7: Pharmacotherapy for CNS Disorders
● Week 8: Pharmacotherapy for Health Promotion and Weight
Loss
,Testing Window: Available starting Wednesday of Week 8 at 12:01 am
MT through Saturday of Week 8 at 11:59 pm MT.
SECTION 1: INFECTIOUS DISEASE
PHARMACOTHERAPY (Questions 1-20)
Q1. A client has a positive skin test for tuberculosis. Which
prophylactic drug should the nurse expect to administer to this client?
A) Carvedilol
B) Acyclovir
C) Griseofulvin
D) Isoniazid
Answer: D) Isoniazid
Rationale: Isoniazid is the drug of choice for treatment of clients with
positive skin tests for tuberculosis. The other options (carvedilol,
acyclovir, griseofulvin) are not used for TB treatment. Carvedilol is a
beta-blocker for heart failure, acyclovir is an antiviral for herpes, and
griseofulvin is an antifungal for dermatophyte infections.
Q2. A female client with trichomoniasis receives a prescription for
metronidazole. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to
include in this client's teaching plan?
A) Complete the medication regimen
B) Use a barrier contraceptive method
C) Treat partner(s) concurrently
D) Avoid alcohol consumption
,Answer: D) Avoid alcohol consumption
Rationale: Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol and products
containing alcohol while taking metronidazole because of the possibility
of a disulfiram-like reaction. While completing the regimen, using barrier
contraception, and treating partners are also important, avoiding alcohol
is the most critical for client safety and well-being due to the severe
reaction that can occur.
Q3. What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated vulvovaginal
candidiasis (VVC) according to current guidelines?
A) Nystatin vaginal suppository nightly for 14 days
B) Econazole 1% cream intravaginally for 7 days
C) Fluconazole 150 mg PO once
D) Itraconazole oral solution for 3 days
Answer: C) Fluconazole 150 mg PO once
Rationale: Single-dose oral fluconazole 150 mg is the preferred first-line
treatment for uncomplicated VVC due to high efficacy (≥90%), patient
convenience, and comparable safety to topical azoles. The other options
require longer courses of therapy.
Q4. Which antiretroviral drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to
teratogenicity?
A) Dolutegravir
B) Nevirapine
C) Efavirenz
D) Raltegravir
, Answer: C) Efavirenz
Rationale: Efavirenz is pregnancy category X due to neural tube defects
observed in primate studies. Current guidelines recommend integrase
strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) like dolutegravir or boosted atazanavir
in pregnancy.
Q5. A patient develops a severe rash accompanied by fever and
malaise after starting antiretroviral therapy. What action should the
healthcare provider take?
A) Continue current therapy
B) Discontinue the drug immediately
C) Increase the dosage
D) Prescribe topical corticosteroids
Answer: B) Discontinue the drug immediately
Rationale: Severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SCARs) like
Stevens-Johnson syndrome or DRESS syndrome require immediate
discontinuation of the offending ARV (often nevirapine or abacavir) to
prevent life-threatening complications. Continuing or increasing the
dose would worsen the reaction.
Q6. A 7-year-old child (25 kg) with community-acquired pneumonia is
prescribed high-dose amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day divided BID for 7 days.
Calculate the milligrams per single dose.
A) 1,125 mg
B) 2,250 mg
2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
NR566 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
FOR CARE OF THE FAMILY FINAL EXAM
REVIEW
COMPLETE 100 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
EXAM OVERVIEW
The NR 566 Advanced Pharmacology for Care of the Family Final
Exam at Chamberlain University is a comprehensive assessment
covering pharmacotherapeutic management across the lifespan. The
exam is non-cumulative and consists of 100 multiple-choice
questions with a 120-minute time limit (approximately 1.2 minutes per
question).
Content Coverage by Week:
● Week 5: Pharmacotherapy for Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Skin
● Week 6: Pharmacotherapy for Mental Health
● Week 7: Pharmacotherapy for CNS Disorders
● Week 8: Pharmacotherapy for Health Promotion and Weight
Loss
,Testing Window: Available starting Wednesday of Week 8 at 12:01 am
MT through Saturday of Week 8 at 11:59 pm MT.
SECTION 1: INFECTIOUS DISEASE
PHARMACOTHERAPY (Questions 1-20)
Q1. A client has a positive skin test for tuberculosis. Which
prophylactic drug should the nurse expect to administer to this client?
A) Carvedilol
B) Acyclovir
C) Griseofulvin
D) Isoniazid
Answer: D) Isoniazid
Rationale: Isoniazid is the drug of choice for treatment of clients with
positive skin tests for tuberculosis. The other options (carvedilol,
acyclovir, griseofulvin) are not used for TB treatment. Carvedilol is a
beta-blocker for heart failure, acyclovir is an antiviral for herpes, and
griseofulvin is an antifungal for dermatophyte infections.
Q2. A female client with trichomoniasis receives a prescription for
metronidazole. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to
include in this client's teaching plan?
A) Complete the medication regimen
B) Use a barrier contraceptive method
C) Treat partner(s) concurrently
D) Avoid alcohol consumption
,Answer: D) Avoid alcohol consumption
Rationale: Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol and products
containing alcohol while taking metronidazole because of the possibility
of a disulfiram-like reaction. While completing the regimen, using barrier
contraception, and treating partners are also important, avoiding alcohol
is the most critical for client safety and well-being due to the severe
reaction that can occur.
Q3. What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated vulvovaginal
candidiasis (VVC) according to current guidelines?
A) Nystatin vaginal suppository nightly for 14 days
B) Econazole 1% cream intravaginally for 7 days
C) Fluconazole 150 mg PO once
D) Itraconazole oral solution for 3 days
Answer: C) Fluconazole 150 mg PO once
Rationale: Single-dose oral fluconazole 150 mg is the preferred first-line
treatment for uncomplicated VVC due to high efficacy (≥90%), patient
convenience, and comparable safety to topical azoles. The other options
require longer courses of therapy.
Q4. Which antiretroviral drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to
teratogenicity?
A) Dolutegravir
B) Nevirapine
C) Efavirenz
D) Raltegravir
, Answer: C) Efavirenz
Rationale: Efavirenz is pregnancy category X due to neural tube defects
observed in primate studies. Current guidelines recommend integrase
strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) like dolutegravir or boosted atazanavir
in pregnancy.
Q5. A patient develops a severe rash accompanied by fever and
malaise after starting antiretroviral therapy. What action should the
healthcare provider take?
A) Continue current therapy
B) Discontinue the drug immediately
C) Increase the dosage
D) Prescribe topical corticosteroids
Answer: B) Discontinue the drug immediately
Rationale: Severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SCARs) like
Stevens-Johnson syndrome or DRESS syndrome require immediate
discontinuation of the offending ARV (often nevirapine or abacavir) to
prevent life-threatening complications. Continuing or increasing the
dose would worsen the reaction.
Q6. A 7-year-old child (25 kg) with community-acquired pneumonia is
prescribed high-dose amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day divided BID for 7 days.
Calculate the milligrams per single dose.
A) 1,125 mg
B) 2,250 mg
