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NSG 555 Exam 1 V3 | NSG 555 Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I | Wilkes University | 2026 Q&A with Rationale (Wilkes NSG555 Exam 1 2026)

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NSG 555 Exam 1 V3 | NSG 555 Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I | Wilkes University | 2026 Q&A with Rationale (Wilkes NSG555 Exam 1 2026)

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NSG 555 Exam 1 V3 | NSG 555 Nurse Practitioners
in Primary Care I | Wilkes University | 2026 Q&A
with Rationale (Wilkes NSG555 Exam 1 2026)
1. A 55-year-old male presents for a routine physical. His blood pressure today is 142/92

mmHg. According to the ACC/AHA 2017 guidelines, how should this be classified?

A. Stage 2 Hypertension


B. Stage 1 Hypertension


C. Elevated Blood Pressure


D. Hypertensive Urgency


Correct Answer: A


Explanation: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 2 Hypertension is defined

as a systolic blood pressure of at least 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of at least

90 mmHg. The patient’s reading of 142/92 mmHg meets both criteria for Stage 2. Accurate

classification is essential for determining the appropriate pharmacological intervention

and follow-up schedule in primary care.


2. Which of the following findings on a physical examination is most characteristic of bacterial

conjunctivitis?

A. Thick, purulent discharge with ‘matted’ eyelids upon awakening


B. Marked pruritus and stringy discharge

,C. Significant watery discharge and preauricular lymphadenopathy


D. Cobblestone papillae on the upper tarsal conjunctiva


Correct Answer: A


Explanation: Bacterial conjunctivitis is typically characterized by a thick, purulent

discharge that causes the eyelids to stick together or ‘mat’ overnight. In contrast, viral

conjunctivitis usually presents with watery discharge and lymphadenopathy, while allergic

conjunctivitis is associated with intense itching. Proper differentiation of these symptoms

guides the clinician in deciding whether to prescribe topical antibiotics.


3. According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine screening for colorectal cancer begin

for average-risk adults?

A. 40 years old


B. 55 years old


C. 50 years old


D. 45 years old


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: The USPSTF updated its guidelines in 2021 to recommend that colorectal

cancer screening begin at age 45 for adults at average risk. This change was implemented

due to the rising incidence of early-onset colorectal cancer in younger populations.

Screening can be performed using stool-based tests or direct visualization methods like

colonoscopy.

,4. A patient presents with a ‘curtain-like’ shadow over their vision and flashes of light

(photopsia). Which condition should the nurse practitioner suspect?

A. Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma


B. Cataracts


C. Retinal Detachment


D. Macular Degeneration


Correct Answer: C


Explanation: The classic presentation of retinal detachment includes the sudden

appearance of floaters, flashes of light, and a sensation of a shadow or curtain descending

across the visual field. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate referral to an

ophthalmologist to prevent permanent vision loss. Unlike glaucoma, this condition is

typically painless but highly vision-threatening.


5. Which of the following is considered the first-line treatment for an adult with

uncomplicated acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A. Azithromycin


B. Ceftriaxone


C. Levofloxacin


D. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)


Correct Answer: D

, Explanation: Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the recommended first-line antibiotic for acute

bacterial rhinosinusitis in adults due to the prevalence of Beta-lactamase producing

organisms. Macrolides like azithromycin are no longer recommended as first-line therapy

due to high rates of resistance among Streptococcus pneumoniae. The treatment duration

is typically 5 to 7 days for uncomplicated cases in adults.


6. In the management of COPD, which tool is primarily used to assess the severity of airflow

limitation?

A. Peak Flow Meter


B. Chest X-ray


C. Spirometry (FEV1/FVC ratio)


D. Pulse Oximetry


Correct Answer: C


Explanation: Spirometry is the gold standard for diagnosing and assessing the severity of

COPD, specifically looking for a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70. This

objective measurement confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation which is a

hallmark of the disease. While other tests like chest X-rays may be used to rule out

comorbidities, they cannot diagnose COPD.


7. A 22-year-old female presents with a sore throat, fever, and cervical lymphadenopathy. A

Rapid Strep Test is negative. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe Penicillin V and monitor for improvement

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