NR 603 CEA EXAM AND PRACTICE
EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026 TEST BANK
COMPLETE 100 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
GRADED
EXAM OVERVIEW
The NR 603 CEA (Clinical Evaluation and Assessment) Exam is a
comprehensive assessment for advanced practice nursing students at
Chamberlain University. The exam covers advanced clinical diagnosis,
assessment, and management strategies across multiple body
systems including cardiology, pulmonology, nephrology,
gastroenterology, hematology, endocrinology, and neurology. The
exam tests clinical reasoning, diagnostic interpretation, and
evidence-based treatment planning.
SECTION 1: HEMATOLOGY & ONCOLOGY
(Questions 1-15)
,Q1. A 60-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2
diabetes presents with progressive fatigue. Laboratory findings reveal
microcytic hypochromic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia
Answer: B) Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia is the most common cause of
microcytic hypochromic anemia and is typically associated with chronic
blood loss or poor iron intake. The low mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
and hypochromia strongly support this diagnosis. Aplastic anemia
presents with pancytopenia, hemolytic anemia is usually normocytic
with elevated reticulocytes, and pernicious anemia is a macrocytic
anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency.
Q2. A patient diagnosed with symptomatic aplastic anemia is being
evaluated for long-term management. Which treatment is most
appropriate?
A) Iron supplementation only
B) Bone marrow transplant with supportive transfusions and
antibiotics
C) Oral vitamin B12 therapy
D) Anticoagulation therapy
Answer: B) Bone marrow transplant with supportive transfusions and
antibiotics
,Rationale: Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure
leading to pancytopenia. Definitive treatment in severe cases includes
bone marrow transplantation, along with supportive care such as PRBC,
platelet transfusions, and prophylactic antibiotics. Iron or B12
supplementation is ineffective unless a specific deficiency is present.
Q3. A patient presents with severe fatigue, chest pain, and shortness
of breath. Hemoglobin is 6.5 g/dL. Which laboratory finding would
most strongly suggest iron deficiency anemia?
A) MCV 67 fL and MCHC 29 g/dL
B) MCV 100 fL and MCHC 34 g/dL
C) Elevated reticulocyte count
D) Elevated serum B12 level
Answer: A) MCV 67 fL and MCHC 29 g/dL
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia typically presents as microcytic (low
MCV) and hypochromic (low MCHC) anemia. An MCV below 80 fL and
MCHC below 32 g/dL are characteristic findings. The other options
describe normocytic or macrocytic patterns or conditions inconsistent
with iron deficiency.
Q4. An elderly patient with a history of rectal cancer presents with
pancytopenia, dysplastic cells on peripheral smear, and recurrent
infections. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?
A) Iron studies
B) Bone marrow biopsy and flow cytometry
C) Vitamin B12 level
D) Coagulation profile
, Answer: B) Bone marrow biopsy and flow cytometry
Rationale: Pancytopenia with dysplastic cells suggests a bone marrow
disorder such as myelodysplastic syndrome or leukemia. Bone marrow
biopsy with flow cytometry is essential for definitive diagnosis. Other
tests may provide supportive information but are not diagnostic.
Q5. A patient with intrinsic factor autoantibodies is at greatest risk for
developing which condition?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Pernicious anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Aplastic anemia
Answer: C) Pernicious anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency
Rationale: Intrinsic factor is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.
Autoantibodies against intrinsic factor lead to impaired absorption and
pernicious anemia. Iron deficiency and hemolytic anemia are unrelated
to intrinsic factor dysfunction.
Q6. A 35-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents with severe
pain in the chest, back, and extremities. What is the most appropriate
initial management?
A) Oral NSAIDs and discharge
B) Immediate splenectomy
C) Hospitalization for IV fluids and opioid analgesia
D) Blood transfusion only
EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026 TEST BANK
COMPLETE 100 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
GRADED
EXAM OVERVIEW
The NR 603 CEA (Clinical Evaluation and Assessment) Exam is a
comprehensive assessment for advanced practice nursing students at
Chamberlain University. The exam covers advanced clinical diagnosis,
assessment, and management strategies across multiple body
systems including cardiology, pulmonology, nephrology,
gastroenterology, hematology, endocrinology, and neurology. The
exam tests clinical reasoning, diagnostic interpretation, and
evidence-based treatment planning.
SECTION 1: HEMATOLOGY & ONCOLOGY
(Questions 1-15)
,Q1. A 60-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2
diabetes presents with progressive fatigue. Laboratory findings reveal
microcytic hypochromic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia
Answer: B) Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia is the most common cause of
microcytic hypochromic anemia and is typically associated with chronic
blood loss or poor iron intake. The low mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
and hypochromia strongly support this diagnosis. Aplastic anemia
presents with pancytopenia, hemolytic anemia is usually normocytic
with elevated reticulocytes, and pernicious anemia is a macrocytic
anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency.
Q2. A patient diagnosed with symptomatic aplastic anemia is being
evaluated for long-term management. Which treatment is most
appropriate?
A) Iron supplementation only
B) Bone marrow transplant with supportive transfusions and
antibiotics
C) Oral vitamin B12 therapy
D) Anticoagulation therapy
Answer: B) Bone marrow transplant with supportive transfusions and
antibiotics
,Rationale: Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure
leading to pancytopenia. Definitive treatment in severe cases includes
bone marrow transplantation, along with supportive care such as PRBC,
platelet transfusions, and prophylactic antibiotics. Iron or B12
supplementation is ineffective unless a specific deficiency is present.
Q3. A patient presents with severe fatigue, chest pain, and shortness
of breath. Hemoglobin is 6.5 g/dL. Which laboratory finding would
most strongly suggest iron deficiency anemia?
A) MCV 67 fL and MCHC 29 g/dL
B) MCV 100 fL and MCHC 34 g/dL
C) Elevated reticulocyte count
D) Elevated serum B12 level
Answer: A) MCV 67 fL and MCHC 29 g/dL
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia typically presents as microcytic (low
MCV) and hypochromic (low MCHC) anemia. An MCV below 80 fL and
MCHC below 32 g/dL are characteristic findings. The other options
describe normocytic or macrocytic patterns or conditions inconsistent
with iron deficiency.
Q4. An elderly patient with a history of rectal cancer presents with
pancytopenia, dysplastic cells on peripheral smear, and recurrent
infections. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?
A) Iron studies
B) Bone marrow biopsy and flow cytometry
C) Vitamin B12 level
D) Coagulation profile
, Answer: B) Bone marrow biopsy and flow cytometry
Rationale: Pancytopenia with dysplastic cells suggests a bone marrow
disorder such as myelodysplastic syndrome or leukemia. Bone marrow
biopsy with flow cytometry is essential for definitive diagnosis. Other
tests may provide supportive information but are not diagnostic.
Q5. A patient with intrinsic factor autoantibodies is at greatest risk for
developing which condition?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Pernicious anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Aplastic anemia
Answer: C) Pernicious anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency
Rationale: Intrinsic factor is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.
Autoantibodies against intrinsic factor lead to impaired absorption and
pernicious anemia. Iron deficiency and hemolytic anemia are unrelated
to intrinsic factor dysfunction.
Q6. A 35-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents with severe
pain in the chest, back, and extremities. What is the most appropriate
initial management?
A) Oral NSAIDs and discharge
B) Immediate splenectomy
C) Hospitalization for IV fluids and opioid analgesia
D) Blood transfusion only
