EMT FISDAP Final Exam 2026/2027 - Practice Examination Page 1
EMT FISDAP FINAL EXAM 2026/2027
Emergency Medical Technician - Comprehensive Practice Examination
200 Questions (Version 1: 100 + Version 2: 100) + 50 Extra Study Guide Questions
VERSION 1 - 100 QUESTIONS (Q1-Q100)
Complete Standalone Examination
Section 1: Airway, Breathing, and Ventilation (Q1-Q20)
Q1: You arrive on scene to find a 34-year-old male who was struck in the head by a falling object at a construction site. He
is unresponsive with snoring respirations at a rate of 8 per minute. There is a visible deformity to his skull. Which of the
following is the MOST appropriate initial airway maneuver?
B. Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver without extending the neck [CORRECT]
A. Perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver to open the airway
C. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway immediately
D. Begin chest compressions due to inadequate breathing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is the technique of choice for patients with suspected cervical spine injury because it opens the airway
without extending the neck. The skull deformity and mechanism of injury make spinal precautions essential. Head-tilt chin-lift (A) is
contraindicated in trauma. An NPA (C) may follow but is not first. Chest compressions (D) are not indicated as the patient has a pulse with
spontaneous respirations.
Q2: You are called to a residence for a 72-year-old female found unresponsive in bed. She has a history of heart failure and
COPD. She is breathing shallowly at 6 breaths per minute with gurgling sounds. Her pulse is weak at 50 bpm. The family
states she has no history of trauma. Which airway maneuver should you perform FIRST?
A. Perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver [CORRECT]
C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
B. Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver
D. Suction the oropharynx before any airway maneuver
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a medical patient with no suspected cervical spine injury, the head-tilt chin-lift is the appropriate first step to open the airway. The
jaw-thrust (B) is reserved for trauma patients. Open the airway first before suctioning (D). An OPA (C) may follow airway opening but is not the
first maneuver.
Q3: Which of the following is the correct method for selecting the proper size oropharyngeal airway (OPA) for an adult
patient?
A. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw [CORRECT]
B. Measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe
C. Measure from the chin to the thyroid cartilage
D. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An OPA is properly sized by measuring from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible, ensuring it reaches the posterior
pharynx without obstructing the glottis. Option B describes NPA sizing. Options C and D are not valid sizing methods for any airway adjunct. An
incorrectly sized OPA can push the epiglottis down, causing obstruction.
Q4: You are preparing to insert a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) for a 58-year-old male with labored breathing. Which
describes correct sizing and technique?
A. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw and insert with a twisting motion
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D. Measure from the chin to the earlobe and insert with a firm pushing motion
C. Measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe, lubricate, and insert with the bevel facing laterally
B. Measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe, lubricate the device, and insert along the floor of the nasal passage with the
bevel toward the septum [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An NPA is sized by measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. It should be lubricated and inserted along the nasal floor with
the bevel facing the septum to reduce mucosal injury. Option A describes OPA sizing. Option C has the bevel facing the wrong direction. Option
D is not a valid method.
Q5: You are suctioning the oropharynx of a 45-year-old male who vomited while unconscious. How long should you suction
at one time?
A. No more than 15 seconds at a time [CORRECT]
B. Up to 30 seconds at a time
C. No more than 10 seconds at a time
D. As long as it takes to clear the airway completely
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to no more than 15 seconds at a time in adults. Prolonged suctioning causes hypoxia, mucosal damage,
and vagal stimulation leading to bradycardia. The catheter should only be inserted as far as directly visible. In pediatric patients the limit is 10
seconds. If secretions remain, withdraw, ventilate, and reinsert.
Q6: You are treating a 68-year-old female with known COPD experiencing mild shortness of breath. She is alert, RR 22,
SpO2 93% on room air, with no signs of severe distress. Which is the MOST appropriate oxygen device?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM [CORRECT]
C. Bag-valve-mask at 15 LPM
D. Venturi mask at 10 LPM
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM is appropriate for a COPD patient with mild dyspnea and SpO2 of 93%. Current guidelines recommend
targeting SpO2 of 88-92% in known COPD retainers to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive and worsening hypercapnia. An NRB (A) delivers
excessive oxygen. A BVM (C) is for inadequate breathing. A Venturi mask (D) is not first-line for mild symptoms.
Q7: You arrive for a 22-year-old male with a gunshot wound to the chest. He is conscious with labored breathing, cyanotic
lips, SpO2 82%, RR 32, and pulse 130. Which is the MOST appropriate oxygen therapy?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 LPM
B. Simple face mask at 10 LPM
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM [CORRECT]
D. Blow-by oxygen at 10 LPM
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM delivers 90-95% oxygen, critical for significant hypoxia (SpO2 82%) and shock. A nasal cannula
(A) and simple face mask (B) are insufficient for this level of hypoxia. Blow-by oxygen (D) is primarily for pediatric patients who cannot tolerate
a mask.
Q8: You are ventilating an apneic 60-year-old male with a BVM. The chest is not rising and you feel resistance when
squeezing. What should you do FIRST?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to the BVM
D. Perform abdominal thrusts to relieve an obstruction
C. Switch to a nasal cannula for spontaneous breathing
B. Reposition the patient head and reattempt ventilation [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When BVM ventilation fails, the most common cause is improper airway positioning. Repositioning the head with head-tilt chin-lift or
jaw-thrust and ensuring a proper mask seal is the first corrective action. Increasing oxygen flow (A) will not solve a ventilation problem. A nasal
cannula (C) is inappropriate for an apneic patient. Abdominal thrusts (D) are for conscious choking patients.
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Q9: You are called to a 65-year-old female with CHF history. She has severe dyspnea, bilateral crackles, pink frothy
sputum, and SpO2 of 85% on 4 LPM NC. She is sitting upright and anxious. Which is MOST appropriate?
A. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Apply CPAP at 5-10 cm H2O with supplemental oxygen [CORRECT]
C. Intubate the patient immediately
D. Administer oxygen via BVM at 15 LPM
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient is in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. CPAP is the most appropriate intervention for a conscious, spontaneously
breathing patient as it increases intrathoracic pressure, reduces preload and afterload, improves alveolar recruitment, and decreases work of
breathing. Current AHA/NAEMSP guidelines recommend CPAP as first-line. An NRB (A) provides less benefit. Intubation (C) is beyond EMT
scope. BVM (D) is for apneic patients.
Q10: You are monitoring a cardiac arrest patient during resuscitation. Capnography shows ETCO2 of 8 mmHg despite
adequate ventilation. What is the MOST accurate interpretation?
A. The patient has been successfully intubated
D. The patient is hyperventilating during resuscitation
C. The patient has a severe airway obstruction
B. Chest compressions are likely of inadequate quality [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During cardiac arrest, ETCO2 is a direct indicator of cardiac output from chest compressions. AHA 2020 guidelines recommend
targeting ETCO2 of at least 10-20 mmHg. Below 10 mmHg strongly suggests inadequate compression quality. A rise above 20 mmHg may
indicate ROSC. Airway obstruction (C) would affect the waveform shape.
Q11: You respond to a 19-year-old female with acute asthma exacerbation. She is in tripod position, using accessory
muscles, can only speak one to two words at a time, with bilateral expiratory wheezing and SpO2 89% on room air. What is
MOST appropriate?
A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 LPM and reassess
B. Administer a bronchodilator via MDI and apply supplemental oxygen via NRB [CORRECT]
C. Apply CPAP and transport immediately without medications
D. Position the patient supine and apply a non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient has severe respiratory distress from acute asthma. Management includes a bronchodilator (albuterol) via MDI with
spacer and supplemental oxygen to maintain SpO2 above 90%. An NRB is appropriate given her hypoxia. A nasal cannula at 2 LPM (A) is
insufficient. CPAP (C) is not first-line for asthma. Positioning supine (D) restricts diaphragmatic movement.
Q12: You are caring for a 70-year-old male with longstanding COPD who has increased dyspnea, productive cough with
yellowish sputum, and fingertip cyanosis. RR 28, pulse 104, SpO2 84% on room air. He is alert but anxious. Which is
MOST appropriate?
A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 1-2 LPM, targeting SpO2 of 88-92% [CORRECT]
B. Withhold oxygen entirely to prevent suppressing the hypoxic drive
C. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM to rapidly correct hypoxia
D. Administer oxygen via BVM to ensure adequate ventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For COPD patients, current guidelines recommend titrating oxygen to target SpO2 of 88-92% via nasal cannula at 1-2 LPM. While
the hypoxic drive theory is debated, excessive oxygen can worsen hypercapnic respiratory failure in retainers. However, withholding oxygen
entirely (B) is dangerous and can cause tissue hypoxia. An NRB (C) risks excessive oxygenation. BVM (D) is for inadequate breathing.
Q13: A 28-year-old female was stung by a bee and now has throat tightness, difficulty swallowing, generalized urticaria, lip
and tongue swelling, and stridor. SpO2 is 91%. What is the MOST appropriate airway management?
A. Insert an OPA and prepare for immediate BVM ventilation
C. Insert an NPA and apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Administer epinephrine via auto-injector, monitor the airway closely, and have advanced airway equipment ready
[CORRECT]
D. Perform a surgical cricothyrotomy to secure the airway
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Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This patient has anaphylaxis with airway compromise. Epinephrine IM is first-line treatment and will help reverse airway edema and
bronchospasm. The EMT must closely monitor the airway as swelling can progress rapidly. An OPA (A) is contraindicated in conscious patients.
An NPA (C) may be insufficient if swelling worsens. Cricothyrotomy (D) is a last resort beyond most EMT scope.
Q14: You are dispatched to a 40-year-old male from a motorcycle crash. He has diminished breath sounds on the right,
jugular venous distention, and tracheal deviation to the left. HR 130, BP 80/50. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Open pneumothorax
B. Simple pneumothorax
C. Tension pneumothorax [CORRECT]
D. Hemothorax
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Classic signs of tension pneumothorax include diminished breath sounds on the affected side, JVD, tracheal deviation away from the
affected side, tachycardia, and hypotension. Air accumulates under positive pressure in the pleural space, collapsing the lung and shifting the
mediastinum. Open pneumothorax (A) would have a visible wound. Simple pneumothorax (B) would not cause hemodynamic compromise or
tracheal deviation.
Q15: A 45-year-old female who recently had knee replacement surgery presents with sudden severe dyspnea, sharp
pleuritic chest pain, and a sense of impending doom. SpO2 86%, RR 32, HR 118. What is the MOST likely cause?
A. Acute asthma attack
D. Myocardial infarction
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Pulmonary embolism [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Recent surgery (a major DVT risk factor), sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and hypoxemia are classic for
pulmonary embolism. Virchow triad (stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability) explains the post-surgical risk. Asthma (A) would not cause
pleuritic pain in this context. Spontaneous pneumothorax (C) would have unilateral diminished breath sounds. MI (D) typically presents with
crushing substernal, not pleuritic, pain.
Q16: You are called to a 20-year-old female breathing at 36/min during a panic attack. Her fingers are tingling and lips are
twitching. She is alert and oriented. BP 120/80, HR 98, SpO2 99%. What is the MOST appropriate management?
A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Coach the patient to slow breathing and have her breathe into a paper bag
C. Calmly reassure the patient and coach her through slowed, controlled breathing [CORRECT]
D. Apply CPAP to reduce her work of breathing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This is hyperventilation syndrome causing respiratory alkalosis from excessive CO2 exhalation, leading to paresthesia and
carpopedal spasm. Treatment is calming reassurance and coaching slowed breathing. Paper bag rebreathing (B) is no longer recommended due
to hypoxia risk. Oxygen (A) is unnecessary with SpO2 99%. CPAP (D) is inappropriate for this condition.
Q17: Which statement regarding the oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is TRUE?
A. An OPA is the airway adjunct of choice for a conscious patient with a gag reflex
B. An OPA should be measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe
C. An OPA is contraindicated in a conscious or semiconscious patient with an intact gag reflex [CORRECT]
D. An OPA should be inserted bevel-side down into the mouth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An OPA is contraindicated in conscious or semiconscious patients because it can stimulate the gag reflex, causing vomiting and
aspiration. OPAs are for unresponsive patients without a gag reflex. Option A is false. Option B describes NPA sizing. Option D is incorrect; the
OPA should be inserted concave-up and rotated 180 degrees past the uvula.
Q18: You are evaluating an unconscious 55-year-old male from an MVC who has blood draining from his nose. You
determine he needs an airway adjunct. Which is MOST appropriate?
A. Insert an NPA from the side with blood drainage
D. Perform a head-tilt chin-lift and insert an NPA
200 Questions + 50 Study Guide Bonus | FISDAP Preparation
EMT FISDAP FINAL EXAM 2026/2027
Emergency Medical Technician - Comprehensive Practice Examination
200 Questions (Version 1: 100 + Version 2: 100) + 50 Extra Study Guide Questions
VERSION 1 - 100 QUESTIONS (Q1-Q100)
Complete Standalone Examination
Section 1: Airway, Breathing, and Ventilation (Q1-Q20)
Q1: You arrive on scene to find a 34-year-old male who was struck in the head by a falling object at a construction site. He
is unresponsive with snoring respirations at a rate of 8 per minute. There is a visible deformity to his skull. Which of the
following is the MOST appropriate initial airway maneuver?
B. Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver without extending the neck [CORRECT]
A. Perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver to open the airway
C. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway immediately
D. Begin chest compressions due to inadequate breathing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is the technique of choice for patients with suspected cervical spine injury because it opens the airway
without extending the neck. The skull deformity and mechanism of injury make spinal precautions essential. Head-tilt chin-lift (A) is
contraindicated in trauma. An NPA (C) may follow but is not first. Chest compressions (D) are not indicated as the patient has a pulse with
spontaneous respirations.
Q2: You are called to a residence for a 72-year-old female found unresponsive in bed. She has a history of heart failure and
COPD. She is breathing shallowly at 6 breaths per minute with gurgling sounds. Her pulse is weak at 50 bpm. The family
states she has no history of trauma. Which airway maneuver should you perform FIRST?
A. Perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver [CORRECT]
C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
B. Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver
D. Suction the oropharynx before any airway maneuver
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a medical patient with no suspected cervical spine injury, the head-tilt chin-lift is the appropriate first step to open the airway. The
jaw-thrust (B) is reserved for trauma patients. Open the airway first before suctioning (D). An OPA (C) may follow airway opening but is not the
first maneuver.
Q3: Which of the following is the correct method for selecting the proper size oropharyngeal airway (OPA) for an adult
patient?
A. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw [CORRECT]
B. Measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe
C. Measure from the chin to the thyroid cartilage
D. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An OPA is properly sized by measuring from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible, ensuring it reaches the posterior
pharynx without obstructing the glottis. Option B describes NPA sizing. Options C and D are not valid sizing methods for any airway adjunct. An
incorrectly sized OPA can push the epiglottis down, causing obstruction.
Q4: You are preparing to insert a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) for a 58-year-old male with labored breathing. Which
describes correct sizing and technique?
A. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw and insert with a twisting motion
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D. Measure from the chin to the earlobe and insert with a firm pushing motion
C. Measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe, lubricate, and insert with the bevel facing laterally
B. Measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe, lubricate the device, and insert along the floor of the nasal passage with the
bevel toward the septum [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An NPA is sized by measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. It should be lubricated and inserted along the nasal floor with
the bevel facing the septum to reduce mucosal injury. Option A describes OPA sizing. Option C has the bevel facing the wrong direction. Option
D is not a valid method.
Q5: You are suctioning the oropharynx of a 45-year-old male who vomited while unconscious. How long should you suction
at one time?
A. No more than 15 seconds at a time [CORRECT]
B. Up to 30 seconds at a time
C. No more than 10 seconds at a time
D. As long as it takes to clear the airway completely
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to no more than 15 seconds at a time in adults. Prolonged suctioning causes hypoxia, mucosal damage,
and vagal stimulation leading to bradycardia. The catheter should only be inserted as far as directly visible. In pediatric patients the limit is 10
seconds. If secretions remain, withdraw, ventilate, and reinsert.
Q6: You are treating a 68-year-old female with known COPD experiencing mild shortness of breath. She is alert, RR 22,
SpO2 93% on room air, with no signs of severe distress. Which is the MOST appropriate oxygen device?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM [CORRECT]
C. Bag-valve-mask at 15 LPM
D. Venturi mask at 10 LPM
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM is appropriate for a COPD patient with mild dyspnea and SpO2 of 93%. Current guidelines recommend
targeting SpO2 of 88-92% in known COPD retainers to avoid suppressing the hypoxic drive and worsening hypercapnia. An NRB (A) delivers
excessive oxygen. A BVM (C) is for inadequate breathing. A Venturi mask (D) is not first-line for mild symptoms.
Q7: You arrive for a 22-year-old male with a gunshot wound to the chest. He is conscious with labored breathing, cyanotic
lips, SpO2 82%, RR 32, and pulse 130. Which is the MOST appropriate oxygen therapy?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 LPM
B. Simple face mask at 10 LPM
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM [CORRECT]
D. Blow-by oxygen at 10 LPM
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM delivers 90-95% oxygen, critical for significant hypoxia (SpO2 82%) and shock. A nasal cannula
(A) and simple face mask (B) are insufficient for this level of hypoxia. Blow-by oxygen (D) is primarily for pediatric patients who cannot tolerate
a mask.
Q8: You are ventilating an apneic 60-year-old male with a BVM. The chest is not rising and you feel resistance when
squeezing. What should you do FIRST?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to the BVM
D. Perform abdominal thrusts to relieve an obstruction
C. Switch to a nasal cannula for spontaneous breathing
B. Reposition the patient head and reattempt ventilation [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When BVM ventilation fails, the most common cause is improper airway positioning. Repositioning the head with head-tilt chin-lift or
jaw-thrust and ensuring a proper mask seal is the first corrective action. Increasing oxygen flow (A) will not solve a ventilation problem. A nasal
cannula (C) is inappropriate for an apneic patient. Abdominal thrusts (D) are for conscious choking patients.
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Q9: You are called to a 65-year-old female with CHF history. She has severe dyspnea, bilateral crackles, pink frothy
sputum, and SpO2 of 85% on 4 LPM NC. She is sitting upright and anxious. Which is MOST appropriate?
A. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Apply CPAP at 5-10 cm H2O with supplemental oxygen [CORRECT]
C. Intubate the patient immediately
D. Administer oxygen via BVM at 15 LPM
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient is in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. CPAP is the most appropriate intervention for a conscious, spontaneously
breathing patient as it increases intrathoracic pressure, reduces preload and afterload, improves alveolar recruitment, and decreases work of
breathing. Current AHA/NAEMSP guidelines recommend CPAP as first-line. An NRB (A) provides less benefit. Intubation (C) is beyond EMT
scope. BVM (D) is for apneic patients.
Q10: You are monitoring a cardiac arrest patient during resuscitation. Capnography shows ETCO2 of 8 mmHg despite
adequate ventilation. What is the MOST accurate interpretation?
A. The patient has been successfully intubated
D. The patient is hyperventilating during resuscitation
C. The patient has a severe airway obstruction
B. Chest compressions are likely of inadequate quality [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During cardiac arrest, ETCO2 is a direct indicator of cardiac output from chest compressions. AHA 2020 guidelines recommend
targeting ETCO2 of at least 10-20 mmHg. Below 10 mmHg strongly suggests inadequate compression quality. A rise above 20 mmHg may
indicate ROSC. Airway obstruction (C) would affect the waveform shape.
Q11: You respond to a 19-year-old female with acute asthma exacerbation. She is in tripod position, using accessory
muscles, can only speak one to two words at a time, with bilateral expiratory wheezing and SpO2 89% on room air. What is
MOST appropriate?
A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 LPM and reassess
B. Administer a bronchodilator via MDI and apply supplemental oxygen via NRB [CORRECT]
C. Apply CPAP and transport immediately without medications
D. Position the patient supine and apply a non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient has severe respiratory distress from acute asthma. Management includes a bronchodilator (albuterol) via MDI with
spacer and supplemental oxygen to maintain SpO2 above 90%. An NRB is appropriate given her hypoxia. A nasal cannula at 2 LPM (A) is
insufficient. CPAP (C) is not first-line for asthma. Positioning supine (D) restricts diaphragmatic movement.
Q12: You are caring for a 70-year-old male with longstanding COPD who has increased dyspnea, productive cough with
yellowish sputum, and fingertip cyanosis. RR 28, pulse 104, SpO2 84% on room air. He is alert but anxious. Which is
MOST appropriate?
A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 1-2 LPM, targeting SpO2 of 88-92% [CORRECT]
B. Withhold oxygen entirely to prevent suppressing the hypoxic drive
C. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM to rapidly correct hypoxia
D. Administer oxygen via BVM to ensure adequate ventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For COPD patients, current guidelines recommend titrating oxygen to target SpO2 of 88-92% via nasal cannula at 1-2 LPM. While
the hypoxic drive theory is debated, excessive oxygen can worsen hypercapnic respiratory failure in retainers. However, withholding oxygen
entirely (B) is dangerous and can cause tissue hypoxia. An NRB (C) risks excessive oxygenation. BVM (D) is for inadequate breathing.
Q13: A 28-year-old female was stung by a bee and now has throat tightness, difficulty swallowing, generalized urticaria, lip
and tongue swelling, and stridor. SpO2 is 91%. What is the MOST appropriate airway management?
A. Insert an OPA and prepare for immediate BVM ventilation
C. Insert an NPA and apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Administer epinephrine via auto-injector, monitor the airway closely, and have advanced airway equipment ready
[CORRECT]
D. Perform a surgical cricothyrotomy to secure the airway
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Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This patient has anaphylaxis with airway compromise. Epinephrine IM is first-line treatment and will help reverse airway edema and
bronchospasm. The EMT must closely monitor the airway as swelling can progress rapidly. An OPA (A) is contraindicated in conscious patients.
An NPA (C) may be insufficient if swelling worsens. Cricothyrotomy (D) is a last resort beyond most EMT scope.
Q14: You are dispatched to a 40-year-old male from a motorcycle crash. He has diminished breath sounds on the right,
jugular venous distention, and tracheal deviation to the left. HR 130, BP 80/50. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Open pneumothorax
B. Simple pneumothorax
C. Tension pneumothorax [CORRECT]
D. Hemothorax
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Classic signs of tension pneumothorax include diminished breath sounds on the affected side, JVD, tracheal deviation away from the
affected side, tachycardia, and hypotension. Air accumulates under positive pressure in the pleural space, collapsing the lung and shifting the
mediastinum. Open pneumothorax (A) would have a visible wound. Simple pneumothorax (B) would not cause hemodynamic compromise or
tracheal deviation.
Q15: A 45-year-old female who recently had knee replacement surgery presents with sudden severe dyspnea, sharp
pleuritic chest pain, and a sense of impending doom. SpO2 86%, RR 32, HR 118. What is the MOST likely cause?
A. Acute asthma attack
D. Myocardial infarction
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Pulmonary embolism [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Recent surgery (a major DVT risk factor), sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and hypoxemia are classic for
pulmonary embolism. Virchow triad (stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability) explains the post-surgical risk. Asthma (A) would not cause
pleuritic pain in this context. Spontaneous pneumothorax (C) would have unilateral diminished breath sounds. MI (D) typically presents with
crushing substernal, not pleuritic, pain.
Q16: You are called to a 20-year-old female breathing at 36/min during a panic attack. Her fingers are tingling and lips are
twitching. She is alert and oriented. BP 120/80, HR 98, SpO2 99%. What is the MOST appropriate management?
A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Coach the patient to slow breathing and have her breathe into a paper bag
C. Calmly reassure the patient and coach her through slowed, controlled breathing [CORRECT]
D. Apply CPAP to reduce her work of breathing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This is hyperventilation syndrome causing respiratory alkalosis from excessive CO2 exhalation, leading to paresthesia and
carpopedal spasm. Treatment is calming reassurance and coaching slowed breathing. Paper bag rebreathing (B) is no longer recommended due
to hypoxia risk. Oxygen (A) is unnecessary with SpO2 99%. CPAP (D) is inappropriate for this condition.
Q17: Which statement regarding the oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is TRUE?
A. An OPA is the airway adjunct of choice for a conscious patient with a gag reflex
B. An OPA should be measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe
C. An OPA is contraindicated in a conscious or semiconscious patient with an intact gag reflex [CORRECT]
D. An OPA should be inserted bevel-side down into the mouth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An OPA is contraindicated in conscious or semiconscious patients because it can stimulate the gag reflex, causing vomiting and
aspiration. OPAs are for unresponsive patients without a gag reflex. Option A is false. Option B describes NPA sizing. Option D is incorrect; the
OPA should be inserted concave-up and rotated 180 degrees past the uvula.
Q18: You are evaluating an unconscious 55-year-old male from an MVC who has blood draining from his nose. You
determine he needs an airway adjunct. Which is MOST appropriate?
A. Insert an NPA from the side with blood drainage
D. Perform a head-tilt chin-lift and insert an NPA
200 Questions + 50 Study Guide Bonus | FISDAP Preparation
