ATI PN Newest Comprehensive Predictor 2026
Exit Exam with NGN 300 Questions and
Answers to Pass Actual 2026 PN ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE (Prioritization, Delegation,
Assignment)
Question 1
A PN is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should the PN assess
FIRST?
A) Client with diabetes requesting pain medication for neuropathy
B) Client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum
C) Client post-op day 1 with new-onset confusion and BP 88/50 mmHg
D) Client with a fractured tibia requesting help to the bathroom
Answer: C
Rationale: New-onset confusion accompanied by hypotension suggests possible sepsis,
hemorrhage, or shock—these are unstable, life-threatening conditions. The ABC framework
(Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and prioritization of unstable clients over stable ones guide
this decision. The other clients have stable conditions that can be addressed after the
unstable client is assessed .
Question 2 (NGN - Delegation)
A charge nurse is assigning staff for the shift. Which client should be assigned to an RN
rather than a PN?
A) Client with stable CHF receiving daily furosemide
B) Client requiring a blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
C) Client with a new diagnosis of diabetes needing initial insulin instruction
D) Client with a PEG tube requiring intermittent feedings
Answer: C
Rationale: Client education, specifically initial instruction, falls under the RN scope as it
requires complex assessment and evaluation of learning. PNs can reinforce teaching but
cannot perform initial client education on complex topics such as new diabetes
,management. Blood transfusions also typically require RN administration, but initial teaching
is clearly outside PN scope .
Question 3 (NGN - Select All That Apply)
A PN is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which tasks are appropriate to
delegate? (Select all that apply)
A) Assisting a client with ambulation to the bathroom
B) Measuring and recording a client's oral intake
C) Performing a sterile dressing change
D) Helping a client with a bed bath
E) Administering an enema
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Assisting with ambulation, measuring intake, and providing bed bath are
standard, stable tasks within the AP scope of practice. The PN cannot delegate sterile
procedures, assessments, or teaching as these require professional nursing judgment.
Administering an enema requires nursing licensure .
Question 4
A client refuses a prescribed medication. What is the PN's FIRST action?
A) Give the medication anyway
B) Document refusal and notify the RN/provider
C) Hide the medication in the client's food
D) Ask the client's family to convince them
Answer: B
Rationale: The client has the right to refuse treatment. The PN should respect client
autonomy, document the refusal, and notify the RN or provider. Coercion or deception is
unethical and illegal .
Question 5
A charge nurse is making assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be
assigned to the LPN/PN?
A) Client 1 hour post-cardiac catheterization with bleeding at insertion site
B) Client with stable diabetes mellitus requiring insulin administration and routine wound
care
C) Client newly admitted with stroke and altered mental status
D) Client receiving IV heparin with PTT of 98 seconds
,Answer: B
Rationale: PNs/LPNs can administer insulin and perform stable wound care for predictable
clients. Options A, C, and D require RN-level assessment: active bleeding requires immediate
intervention, neurological changes need expert evaluation, and critical lab monitoring
demands RN judgment .
Question 6
A nurse discovers a fire in a client's room. What is the FIRST action?
A) Activate the fire alarm
B) Use the fire extinguisher
C) Remove the client from the room
D) Close all doors on the unit
Answer: C
Rationale: In a fire, the priority is to evacuate clients using the RACE protocol. Client safety
comes first—remove the client from immediate danger. Activating the alarm, extinguishing
the fire, and closing doors follow .
Question 7
A client with a DNR order develops respiratory distress. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Perform CPR immediately
B) Call a code blue
C) Provide comfort measures and notify the provider
D) Intubate the client
Answer: C
Rationale: DNR means do not perform CPR or intubation. The nurse should still provide
comfort measures, including oxygen (if not contraindicated), positioning, and suctioning, and
notify the provider of the change in status .
Question 8
A PN is reviewing HIPAA compliance. Which action violates patient privacy?
A) Faxing records to another hospital with a cover sheet
B) Leaving a patient's chart open on the nursing station desk
C) Discussing patient care in a private conference room
D) Shredding old patient reports after shift
Answer: B
, Rationale: Leaving identifiable patient information in public view violates privacy. Faxing with
cover sheet and private discussions are acceptable if done securely .
Question 9
A client with HIV is admitted. The client asks who will be told about their diagnosis. Which
response is correct?
A) "Your HIV status will not be shared with any member of the healthcare team"
B) "Your HIV status will be shared only with your primary care provider"
C) "Your HIV status will be shared with members of your health care team who provide
direct care"
D) "Your HIV status will be kept confidential from everyone including healthcare providers"
Answer: C
Rationale: The diagnosis of HIV or AIDS is shared with every member of the healthcare team
who provides direct care for the client, just like any other diagnoses. Confidentiality laws
protect against inappropriate disclosure but allow for sharing necessary information with the
treatment team .
Question 10
A client in a coma is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should:
A) Obtain verbal consent from the client
B) Determine if the healthcare surrogate is aware of risks/benefits
C) Have two nurses witness consent
D) Proceed without consent as it is an emergency
Answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent for incapacitated clients must be obtained from the healthcare
surrogate or legal guardian. The surrogate must understand the risks and benefits. The client
cannot consent (A) .
Question 11
A PN notices a colleague is impaired and smelling of alcohol. What action is most
appropriate?
A) Ignore it if it's the first time
B) Confront the colleague privately
C) Report to the nurse manager immediately
D) Ask the colleague to go home
Exit Exam with NGN 300 Questions and
Answers to Pass Actual 2026 PN ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE (Prioritization, Delegation,
Assignment)
Question 1
A PN is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should the PN assess
FIRST?
A) Client with diabetes requesting pain medication for neuropathy
B) Client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum
C) Client post-op day 1 with new-onset confusion and BP 88/50 mmHg
D) Client with a fractured tibia requesting help to the bathroom
Answer: C
Rationale: New-onset confusion accompanied by hypotension suggests possible sepsis,
hemorrhage, or shock—these are unstable, life-threatening conditions. The ABC framework
(Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and prioritization of unstable clients over stable ones guide
this decision. The other clients have stable conditions that can be addressed after the
unstable client is assessed .
Question 2 (NGN - Delegation)
A charge nurse is assigning staff for the shift. Which client should be assigned to an RN
rather than a PN?
A) Client with stable CHF receiving daily furosemide
B) Client requiring a blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
C) Client with a new diagnosis of diabetes needing initial insulin instruction
D) Client with a PEG tube requiring intermittent feedings
Answer: C
Rationale: Client education, specifically initial instruction, falls under the RN scope as it
requires complex assessment and evaluation of learning. PNs can reinforce teaching but
cannot perform initial client education on complex topics such as new diabetes
,management. Blood transfusions also typically require RN administration, but initial teaching
is clearly outside PN scope .
Question 3 (NGN - Select All That Apply)
A PN is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which tasks are appropriate to
delegate? (Select all that apply)
A) Assisting a client with ambulation to the bathroom
B) Measuring and recording a client's oral intake
C) Performing a sterile dressing change
D) Helping a client with a bed bath
E) Administering an enema
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Assisting with ambulation, measuring intake, and providing bed bath are
standard, stable tasks within the AP scope of practice. The PN cannot delegate sterile
procedures, assessments, or teaching as these require professional nursing judgment.
Administering an enema requires nursing licensure .
Question 4
A client refuses a prescribed medication. What is the PN's FIRST action?
A) Give the medication anyway
B) Document refusal and notify the RN/provider
C) Hide the medication in the client's food
D) Ask the client's family to convince them
Answer: B
Rationale: The client has the right to refuse treatment. The PN should respect client
autonomy, document the refusal, and notify the RN or provider. Coercion or deception is
unethical and illegal .
Question 5
A charge nurse is making assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be
assigned to the LPN/PN?
A) Client 1 hour post-cardiac catheterization with bleeding at insertion site
B) Client with stable diabetes mellitus requiring insulin administration and routine wound
care
C) Client newly admitted with stroke and altered mental status
D) Client receiving IV heparin with PTT of 98 seconds
,Answer: B
Rationale: PNs/LPNs can administer insulin and perform stable wound care for predictable
clients. Options A, C, and D require RN-level assessment: active bleeding requires immediate
intervention, neurological changes need expert evaluation, and critical lab monitoring
demands RN judgment .
Question 6
A nurse discovers a fire in a client's room. What is the FIRST action?
A) Activate the fire alarm
B) Use the fire extinguisher
C) Remove the client from the room
D) Close all doors on the unit
Answer: C
Rationale: In a fire, the priority is to evacuate clients using the RACE protocol. Client safety
comes first—remove the client from immediate danger. Activating the alarm, extinguishing
the fire, and closing doors follow .
Question 7
A client with a DNR order develops respiratory distress. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Perform CPR immediately
B) Call a code blue
C) Provide comfort measures and notify the provider
D) Intubate the client
Answer: C
Rationale: DNR means do not perform CPR or intubation. The nurse should still provide
comfort measures, including oxygen (if not contraindicated), positioning, and suctioning, and
notify the provider of the change in status .
Question 8
A PN is reviewing HIPAA compliance. Which action violates patient privacy?
A) Faxing records to another hospital with a cover sheet
B) Leaving a patient's chart open on the nursing station desk
C) Discussing patient care in a private conference room
D) Shredding old patient reports after shift
Answer: B
, Rationale: Leaving identifiable patient information in public view violates privacy. Faxing with
cover sheet and private discussions are acceptable if done securely .
Question 9
A client with HIV is admitted. The client asks who will be told about their diagnosis. Which
response is correct?
A) "Your HIV status will not be shared with any member of the healthcare team"
B) "Your HIV status will be shared only with your primary care provider"
C) "Your HIV status will be shared with members of your health care team who provide
direct care"
D) "Your HIV status will be kept confidential from everyone including healthcare providers"
Answer: C
Rationale: The diagnosis of HIV or AIDS is shared with every member of the healthcare team
who provides direct care for the client, just like any other diagnoses. Confidentiality laws
protect against inappropriate disclosure but allow for sharing necessary information with the
treatment team .
Question 10
A client in a coma is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should:
A) Obtain verbal consent from the client
B) Determine if the healthcare surrogate is aware of risks/benefits
C) Have two nurses witness consent
D) Proceed without consent as it is an emergency
Answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent for incapacitated clients must be obtained from the healthcare
surrogate or legal guardian. The surrogate must understand the risks and benefits. The client
cannot consent (A) .
Question 11
A PN notices a colleague is impaired and smelling of alcohol. What action is most
appropriate?
A) Ignore it if it's the first time
B) Confront the colleague privately
C) Report to the nurse manager immediately
D) Ask the colleague to go home
