EMT EXAM 2 READINESS TEST BANK: 540 NREMT-
STYLE PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS & CLINICAL RATIONALES | EMERGENCY
MEDICAL TECHNICIAN (EMT) EXAM 2 -WITH
VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES | 100% CORRECT
1. A 44-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless.
CPR is in progress. The cardiac monitor shows a shockable
rhythm. What is the next step?
• A. Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV
• B. Perform 2 minutes of CPR
• C. Defibrillate with 200 J (biphasic)
• D. Insert an advanced airway
Correct answer: C. Defibrillate with 200 J (biphasic)
Rationale: In cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm (VF/pVT), immediate
defibrillation is the priority. CPR should be interrupted as little as possible, and
shocks should be delivered as soon as the defibrillator is ready.
2. Which of the following is the earliest sign of hypoxia?
• A. Cyanosis
• B. Confusion
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C. Tachypnea
Rationale: Increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) is one of the earliest compensatory
responses to hypoxia. Cyanosis is a late and unreliable sign.
,3. A patient with a history of COPD presents with increased
work of breathing, barrel chest, and diminished lung sounds.
You should administer oxygen at:
• A. 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• B. 15 L/min via non-rebreather
• C. 6 L/min via nasal cannula
• D. 10 L/min via bag-valve-mask
Correct answer: A. 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Rationale: COPD patients may rely on hypoxic drive. Titrate oxygen to maintain SpO₂
88–92% to avoid suppressing respiratory drive while still providing adequate
oxygenation.
4. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for an
airway obstruction?
• A. A 30-year-old with anxiety
• B. A 55-year-old with a history of asthma
• C. A 70-year-old who is unresponsive with no gag reflex
• D. A 10-year-old with a fever
Correct answer: C. A 70-year-old who is unresponsive with no gag reflex
Rationale: An unresponsive patient with a lost gag reflex cannot protect their own
airway and is at high risk for aspiration or tongue obstruction.
5. You respond to a 28-year-old female with sudden onset of
respiratory distress, wheezing, and hives after eating peanuts.
Her BP is 88/60, HR 120, and SpO₂ 91%. What is the priority
medication?
• A. Albuterol nebulizer
• B. Epinephrine 1:1000 IM
• C. Diphenhydramine PO
• D. Normal saline bolus
,Correct answer: B. Epinephrine 1:1000 IM
Rationale: This is anaphylactic shock. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment to
reverse bronchoconstriction and hypotension. It should be given IM in the
anterolateral thigh.
6. A 65-year-old male complains of crushing chest pain
radiating to his jaw. He is nauseous and diaphoretic. His BP is
100/70, HR 110. What is the most appropriate first action?
• A. Administer aspirin 324 mg PO
• B. Administer nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
• D. Administer oxygen at 4 L/min
Correct answer: A. Administer aspirin 324 mg PO
Rationale: Aspirin reduces mortality in acute MI and should be given unless
contraindicated. Oxygen is given if SpO₂ < 94%, and nitroglycerin requires caution
with hypotension (SBP < 100 is relative contraindication).
7. A patient presents with a chief complaint of "tearing" chest
pain radiating to the back, with a difference in blood pressure
between arms. You suspect:
• A. Acute coronary syndrome
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Aortic dissection
• D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: C. Aortic dissection
Rationale: Tearing chest pain radiating to the back with unequal BP between arms is
classic for aortic dissection. Rapid transport is critical.
, 8. Which of the following is a contraindication to administering
oral glucose?
• A. Blood glucose of 60 mg/dL
• B. Patient is unconscious
• C. Patient has a history of diabetes
• D. Patient is shaky and confused
Correct answer: B. Patient is unconscious
Rationale: Oral glucose should never be given to an unresponsive patient due to
aspiration risk. It should only be given to conscious patients who can swallow.
9. A 45-year-old male is actively seizing. The seizure has lasted
6 minutes. Your priority is:
• A. Insert an oral airway
• B. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather
• C. Transport immediately
• D. Establish IV access
Correct answer: C. Transport immediately
Rationale: A seizure lasting > 5 minutes is status epilepticus, a medical emergency.
The priority is rapid transport while managing airway and breathing. Do NOT insert
anything into the mouth during active seizure.
10. Which of the following is the best indicator of adequate
perfusion in a pediatric patient?
• A. Capillary refill time < 2 seconds
• B. Blood pressure within normal range
• C. Respiratory rate of 12
• D. Skin is warm and dry
Correct answer: A. Capillary refill time < 2 seconds
Rationale: In children, cap refill is a reliable indicator of peripheral perfusion.
Prolonged refill (> 2 seconds) suggests poor perfusion or shock.
STYLE PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS & CLINICAL RATIONALES | EMERGENCY
MEDICAL TECHNICIAN (EMT) EXAM 2 -WITH
VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES | 100% CORRECT
1. A 44-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless.
CPR is in progress. The cardiac monitor shows a shockable
rhythm. What is the next step?
• A. Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV
• B. Perform 2 minutes of CPR
• C. Defibrillate with 200 J (biphasic)
• D. Insert an advanced airway
Correct answer: C. Defibrillate with 200 J (biphasic)
Rationale: In cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm (VF/pVT), immediate
defibrillation is the priority. CPR should be interrupted as little as possible, and
shocks should be delivered as soon as the defibrillator is ready.
2. Which of the following is the earliest sign of hypoxia?
• A. Cyanosis
• B. Confusion
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C. Tachypnea
Rationale: Increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) is one of the earliest compensatory
responses to hypoxia. Cyanosis is a late and unreliable sign.
,3. A patient with a history of COPD presents with increased
work of breathing, barrel chest, and diminished lung sounds.
You should administer oxygen at:
• A. 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• B. 15 L/min via non-rebreather
• C. 6 L/min via nasal cannula
• D. 10 L/min via bag-valve-mask
Correct answer: A. 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Rationale: COPD patients may rely on hypoxic drive. Titrate oxygen to maintain SpO₂
88–92% to avoid suppressing respiratory drive while still providing adequate
oxygenation.
4. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for an
airway obstruction?
• A. A 30-year-old with anxiety
• B. A 55-year-old with a history of asthma
• C. A 70-year-old who is unresponsive with no gag reflex
• D. A 10-year-old with a fever
Correct answer: C. A 70-year-old who is unresponsive with no gag reflex
Rationale: An unresponsive patient with a lost gag reflex cannot protect their own
airway and is at high risk for aspiration or tongue obstruction.
5. You respond to a 28-year-old female with sudden onset of
respiratory distress, wheezing, and hives after eating peanuts.
Her BP is 88/60, HR 120, and SpO₂ 91%. What is the priority
medication?
• A. Albuterol nebulizer
• B. Epinephrine 1:1000 IM
• C. Diphenhydramine PO
• D. Normal saline bolus
,Correct answer: B. Epinephrine 1:1000 IM
Rationale: This is anaphylactic shock. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment to
reverse bronchoconstriction and hypotension. It should be given IM in the
anterolateral thigh.
6. A 65-year-old male complains of crushing chest pain
radiating to his jaw. He is nauseous and diaphoretic. His BP is
100/70, HR 110. What is the most appropriate first action?
• A. Administer aspirin 324 mg PO
• B. Administer nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
• D. Administer oxygen at 4 L/min
Correct answer: A. Administer aspirin 324 mg PO
Rationale: Aspirin reduces mortality in acute MI and should be given unless
contraindicated. Oxygen is given if SpO₂ < 94%, and nitroglycerin requires caution
with hypotension (SBP < 100 is relative contraindication).
7. A patient presents with a chief complaint of "tearing" chest
pain radiating to the back, with a difference in blood pressure
between arms. You suspect:
• A. Acute coronary syndrome
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Aortic dissection
• D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: C. Aortic dissection
Rationale: Tearing chest pain radiating to the back with unequal BP between arms is
classic for aortic dissection. Rapid transport is critical.
, 8. Which of the following is a contraindication to administering
oral glucose?
• A. Blood glucose of 60 mg/dL
• B. Patient is unconscious
• C. Patient has a history of diabetes
• D. Patient is shaky and confused
Correct answer: B. Patient is unconscious
Rationale: Oral glucose should never be given to an unresponsive patient due to
aspiration risk. It should only be given to conscious patients who can swallow.
9. A 45-year-old male is actively seizing. The seizure has lasted
6 minutes. Your priority is:
• A. Insert an oral airway
• B. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather
• C. Transport immediately
• D. Establish IV access
Correct answer: C. Transport immediately
Rationale: A seizure lasting > 5 minutes is status epilepticus, a medical emergency.
The priority is rapid transport while managing airway and breathing. Do NOT insert
anything into the mouth during active seizure.
10. Which of the following is the best indicator of adequate
perfusion in a pediatric patient?
• A. Capillary refill time < 2 seconds
• B. Blood pressure within normal range
• C. Respiratory rate of 12
• D. Skin is warm and dry
Correct answer: A. Capillary refill time < 2 seconds
Rationale: In children, cap refill is a reliable indicator of peripheral perfusion.
Prolonged refill (> 2 seconds) suggests poor perfusion or shock.
