NUR 505-Exam 3 Question and Answer [2026]
| UPDATED ACTUAL Exam | Detailed Answer
Explanations
• A client is started on terbutaline therapy. What would indicate that the therapy
has been successful?
a) The mother did not require any labor induction.
b) Premature birth is avoided for at least 24 hours.
c) There has been less or no bleeding in the delivery.
d) The mother does not experience adverse effects. -✓✓ b) Premature birth is
avoided for at least 24 hours
Terbutaline drug therapy is considered effective when all the following have been
achieved: the premature contractions decrease in intensity and frequency; the
woman and fetus do not experience adverse effects; and premature birth is avoided
for at least 24 hours so that administered corticosteroids can exert their beneficial
effects. Terbutaline is not to be given for labor induction but to stop preterm labor.
• A nurse caring for a 43-year-old client explains to the client that ovarian
functions gradually decrease around this age. What is the implication of decreased
ovarian function?
a) Susceptibility to fractures b) Increases the risk of heart disease
c) Changes in sexual response
d) Inability to become pregnant -✓✓ d) inability to become pregnant
Because of the decrease in ovarian functions, the client loses the ability to become
pregnant. Loss of estrogen makes the client susceptible to fractures and also
,increases the risk of heart disease. Changes in sexual response are usually related
to physical changes in the vagina.
• By about which day in the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?
a) 5
b) 14
c) 21
d) 28 -✓✓ b) 14
• The human sexual response involves the activation of which system?
a) Endocrine system
b) Parasympathetic nervous system
c) Sympathetic nervous system
d) Urinary system -✓✓ c) sympathetic nervous system
The human sexual response involves activation of the sympathetic nervous system
to allow a four-phase response: stimulation, plateau, climax, and resolution.
• A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client. The nurse understands
that a PDE5 inhibitor would be inappropriate for a client taking:
a) Ketoconazole.
b) Indinavir.
c) Nitroglycerin.
, d) Erythromycin. -✓✓ c) nitroglycerin
The PDE5 inhibitors cannot be taken in combination with any organic nitrates or
alpha-adrenergic blockers because serious cardiovascular effects may occur,
including death. Increased PDE5 inhibitor levels and effects may be seen with
ketoconazole, indinavir, and erythromycin; the dosage of the inhibitor would need
to be reduced.
• The nurse is discussing the human response to sexual stimulation with a client
experiencing an arousal problem. In which phase of sexual response should the
client begin to feel the effects of the sympathetic nervous system?
a) Stimulation
b) Plateau
c) Climax
d) Recovery -✓✓ a) stimulation
A period of stimulation with mild increases in sensitivity and beginning
stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. None of the remaining phases are
associated with the initiation of the sympathetic nervous system.
• Menarche -✓✓ Refers to the onset of the first menstrual cycle
• A 24-year-old female athlete is using high doses of anabolic steroids to enhance
her performance. She may be at risk for which condition?
a) Acne
| UPDATED ACTUAL Exam | Detailed Answer
Explanations
• A client is started on terbutaline therapy. What would indicate that the therapy
has been successful?
a) The mother did not require any labor induction.
b) Premature birth is avoided for at least 24 hours.
c) There has been less or no bleeding in the delivery.
d) The mother does not experience adverse effects. -✓✓ b) Premature birth is
avoided for at least 24 hours
Terbutaline drug therapy is considered effective when all the following have been
achieved: the premature contractions decrease in intensity and frequency; the
woman and fetus do not experience adverse effects; and premature birth is avoided
for at least 24 hours so that administered corticosteroids can exert their beneficial
effects. Terbutaline is not to be given for labor induction but to stop preterm labor.
• A nurse caring for a 43-year-old client explains to the client that ovarian
functions gradually decrease around this age. What is the implication of decreased
ovarian function?
a) Susceptibility to fractures b) Increases the risk of heart disease
c) Changes in sexual response
d) Inability to become pregnant -✓✓ d) inability to become pregnant
Because of the decrease in ovarian functions, the client loses the ability to become
pregnant. Loss of estrogen makes the client susceptible to fractures and also
,increases the risk of heart disease. Changes in sexual response are usually related
to physical changes in the vagina.
• By about which day in the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?
a) 5
b) 14
c) 21
d) 28 -✓✓ b) 14
• The human sexual response involves the activation of which system?
a) Endocrine system
b) Parasympathetic nervous system
c) Sympathetic nervous system
d) Urinary system -✓✓ c) sympathetic nervous system
The human sexual response involves activation of the sympathetic nervous system
to allow a four-phase response: stimulation, plateau, climax, and resolution.
• A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client. The nurse understands
that a PDE5 inhibitor would be inappropriate for a client taking:
a) Ketoconazole.
b) Indinavir.
c) Nitroglycerin.
, d) Erythromycin. -✓✓ c) nitroglycerin
The PDE5 inhibitors cannot be taken in combination with any organic nitrates or
alpha-adrenergic blockers because serious cardiovascular effects may occur,
including death. Increased PDE5 inhibitor levels and effects may be seen with
ketoconazole, indinavir, and erythromycin; the dosage of the inhibitor would need
to be reduced.
• The nurse is discussing the human response to sexual stimulation with a client
experiencing an arousal problem. In which phase of sexual response should the
client begin to feel the effects of the sympathetic nervous system?
a) Stimulation
b) Plateau
c) Climax
d) Recovery -✓✓ a) stimulation
A period of stimulation with mild increases in sensitivity and beginning
stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. None of the remaining phases are
associated with the initiation of the sympathetic nervous system.
• Menarche -✓✓ Refers to the onset of the first menstrual cycle
• A 24-year-old female athlete is using high doses of anabolic steroids to enhance
her performance. She may be at risk for which condition?
a) Acne
