NREMT EXAM REVIEW – 600+ PRACTICE
QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS FOR
EMT CERTIFICATION EXAM PREP EMT
COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE (PDF) (GRADED
A+)
A 44-year-old female is sitting upright with shortness of breath on exertion.
RR 20, speaking in full sentences, SpO2 92%. What should you do?
A) Start non-rebreather at 10-15 LPM
B) Assist ventilations with BVM
C) Insert NPA first
D) Start oxygen with nasal cannula at 4 LPM
Answer: D) Start oxygen with nasal cannula at 4 LPM
Rationale: The patient is in mild respiratory distress (can speak full sentences,
SpO2 92%). A nasal cannula at 2-6 LPM is appropriate for mild distress. Non-
rebreather is reserved for more severe presentations.
After blood travels through the right ventricle, it heads to the:
A) Left atrium
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Aorta
D) Pulmonary vein
Answer: B) Pulmonary artery
Rationale: The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary
valve into the pulmonary artery, which carries blood to the lungs for oxygenation.
This is the only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood.
A 2-year-old has his entire leg and entire left arm burned. According to the
Rule of Nines, what percentage is burned?
A) 16%
B) 2%
C) 23%
D) 31%
,Answer: C) 23%
Rationale: In children, the Rule of Nines differs from adults. A child's leg is
approximately 14%, and the entire arm is 9%, totaling 23%. Some texts use 13.5%
for a child's leg.
What is the MOST obvious way to reduce heat loss from radiation and
convection?
A) Move away from a cold object
B) Increase metabolism by shivering
C) Wear a thick wind-proof jacket
D) Move to a warmer environment
Answer: D) Move to a warmer environment
Rationale: Moving to a warmer environment directly addresses both radiation
(heat transfer by radiant energy) and convection (heat transfer to circulating air).
While a windproof jacket helps with convection, it doesn't address radiation as
effectively.
A 32-year-old female has throbbing right-sided headache, photophobia,
nausea, symmetrical face, and clear speech. You should suspect:
A) Transient ischemic attack
B) Tension headache
C) Migraine
D) Bell's palsy
Answer: C) Migraine
Rationale: Migraine is characterized by unilateral throbbing headache,
photophobia, and nausea. Symmetrical face and clear speech rule out stroke/TIA.
Bell's palsy causes facial weakness, not headache.
A 24-year-old male has a tonic/clonic seizure, is now awake and unaware of
what happened, and ran out of seizure medication. Vitals: P 72, R 16, BP
138/68, SpO2 96%. You should:
A) Transport in recovery position
B) Administer oral glucose
C) Administer oxygen
D) Monitor and transport
Answer: D) Monitor and transport
Rationale: The patient is stable postictal with adequate vitals and SpO2.
,Continued monitoring and transport are appropriate. Recovery position is for
unresponsive patients. Oral glucose requires confirmed hypoglycemia. Oxygen is
not indicated with SpO2 96%.
A patient has ingested a commercial drain cleaner. Activated charcoal is:
A) Indicated
B) Contraindicated
C) Recommended with sorbitol
D) Effective for all poisons
Answer: B) Contraindicated
Rationale: Activated charcoal is contraindicated for acid, alkali (drain cleaner),
and petroleum product ingestions. These substances can cause burns and aspiration
risk. Additionally, patients who cannot protect their airway or are unable to
swallow should not receive activated charcoal.
As an EMT, the requirement to act in a certain manner is called:
A) Standard of care
B) Standard of practice
C) Standard of ethics
D) Standard of manners
Answer: A) Standard of care
Rationale: The standard of care is the legal and professional obligation to provide
care consistent with accepted medical practice. It establishes the minimum
acceptable level of care that a reasonable EMT would provide under similar
circumstances .
The term "medial" refers to:
A) Farther away from the midline
B) The side
C) Closer to the midline
D) Closer to the side
Answer: C) Closer to the midline
Rationale: Medial describes a position closer to the midline of the body. Lateral
describes positions farther from the midline. Understanding directional terms is
essential for accurate communication about patient injuries.
, A patient has a prolonged expiratory phase during an asthma attack. This is
caused by:
A) Bronchiole constriction
B) Pulmonary venous hypertension
C) Thick, sticky mucus production
D) Ruptured blebs
Answer: A) Bronchiole constriction
Rationale: Bronchiole constriction narrows airways, trapping air and prolonging
expiration. Mucus production contributes but doesn't directly cause the prolonged
phase. Pulmonary venous hypertension is associated with CHF.
A patient has cyanide poisoning. How does cyanide affect oxygen delivery?
A) It prevents oxygen from binding to hemoglobin
B) It prevents cellular use of oxygen
C) It displaces oxygen from hemoglobin
D) It causes bronchoconstriction
Answer: B) It prevents cellular use of oxygen
Rationale: Cyanide interferes with cellular respiration by binding to cytochrome c
oxidase, preventing cells from utilizing oxygen despite adequate oxygen delivery.
Carbon monoxide, not cyanide, displaces oxygen from hemoglobin.
A patient with asthma took his albuterol inhaler and feels better. Vitals: P 92,
R 18, BP 130/82, SpO2 93%. You should administer:
A) Oxygen by non-rebreather mask
B) Oxygen by nasal cannula
C) Albuterol by inhaler
D) Albuterol by nebulizer
Answer: B) Oxygen by nasal cannula
Rationale: The patient is improved but has SpO2 93%, indicating continued need
for supplemental oxygen. A nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM is appropriate. The patient
has already taken albuterol, and additional doses require medical control orders.
In a cold environment, you should avoid active rewarming in the field because
it can cause:
A) Rewarming shock
B) Hypothermia
QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS FOR
EMT CERTIFICATION EXAM PREP EMT
COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE (PDF) (GRADED
A+)
A 44-year-old female is sitting upright with shortness of breath on exertion.
RR 20, speaking in full sentences, SpO2 92%. What should you do?
A) Start non-rebreather at 10-15 LPM
B) Assist ventilations with BVM
C) Insert NPA first
D) Start oxygen with nasal cannula at 4 LPM
Answer: D) Start oxygen with nasal cannula at 4 LPM
Rationale: The patient is in mild respiratory distress (can speak full sentences,
SpO2 92%). A nasal cannula at 2-6 LPM is appropriate for mild distress. Non-
rebreather is reserved for more severe presentations.
After blood travels through the right ventricle, it heads to the:
A) Left atrium
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Aorta
D) Pulmonary vein
Answer: B) Pulmonary artery
Rationale: The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary
valve into the pulmonary artery, which carries blood to the lungs for oxygenation.
This is the only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood.
A 2-year-old has his entire leg and entire left arm burned. According to the
Rule of Nines, what percentage is burned?
A) 16%
B) 2%
C) 23%
D) 31%
,Answer: C) 23%
Rationale: In children, the Rule of Nines differs from adults. A child's leg is
approximately 14%, and the entire arm is 9%, totaling 23%. Some texts use 13.5%
for a child's leg.
What is the MOST obvious way to reduce heat loss from radiation and
convection?
A) Move away from a cold object
B) Increase metabolism by shivering
C) Wear a thick wind-proof jacket
D) Move to a warmer environment
Answer: D) Move to a warmer environment
Rationale: Moving to a warmer environment directly addresses both radiation
(heat transfer by radiant energy) and convection (heat transfer to circulating air).
While a windproof jacket helps with convection, it doesn't address radiation as
effectively.
A 32-year-old female has throbbing right-sided headache, photophobia,
nausea, symmetrical face, and clear speech. You should suspect:
A) Transient ischemic attack
B) Tension headache
C) Migraine
D) Bell's palsy
Answer: C) Migraine
Rationale: Migraine is characterized by unilateral throbbing headache,
photophobia, and nausea. Symmetrical face and clear speech rule out stroke/TIA.
Bell's palsy causes facial weakness, not headache.
A 24-year-old male has a tonic/clonic seizure, is now awake and unaware of
what happened, and ran out of seizure medication. Vitals: P 72, R 16, BP
138/68, SpO2 96%. You should:
A) Transport in recovery position
B) Administer oral glucose
C) Administer oxygen
D) Monitor and transport
Answer: D) Monitor and transport
Rationale: The patient is stable postictal with adequate vitals and SpO2.
,Continued monitoring and transport are appropriate. Recovery position is for
unresponsive patients. Oral glucose requires confirmed hypoglycemia. Oxygen is
not indicated with SpO2 96%.
A patient has ingested a commercial drain cleaner. Activated charcoal is:
A) Indicated
B) Contraindicated
C) Recommended with sorbitol
D) Effective for all poisons
Answer: B) Contraindicated
Rationale: Activated charcoal is contraindicated for acid, alkali (drain cleaner),
and petroleum product ingestions. These substances can cause burns and aspiration
risk. Additionally, patients who cannot protect their airway or are unable to
swallow should not receive activated charcoal.
As an EMT, the requirement to act in a certain manner is called:
A) Standard of care
B) Standard of practice
C) Standard of ethics
D) Standard of manners
Answer: A) Standard of care
Rationale: The standard of care is the legal and professional obligation to provide
care consistent with accepted medical practice. It establishes the minimum
acceptable level of care that a reasonable EMT would provide under similar
circumstances .
The term "medial" refers to:
A) Farther away from the midline
B) The side
C) Closer to the midline
D) Closer to the side
Answer: C) Closer to the midline
Rationale: Medial describes a position closer to the midline of the body. Lateral
describes positions farther from the midline. Understanding directional terms is
essential for accurate communication about patient injuries.
, A patient has a prolonged expiratory phase during an asthma attack. This is
caused by:
A) Bronchiole constriction
B) Pulmonary venous hypertension
C) Thick, sticky mucus production
D) Ruptured blebs
Answer: A) Bronchiole constriction
Rationale: Bronchiole constriction narrows airways, trapping air and prolonging
expiration. Mucus production contributes but doesn't directly cause the prolonged
phase. Pulmonary venous hypertension is associated with CHF.
A patient has cyanide poisoning. How does cyanide affect oxygen delivery?
A) It prevents oxygen from binding to hemoglobin
B) It prevents cellular use of oxygen
C) It displaces oxygen from hemoglobin
D) It causes bronchoconstriction
Answer: B) It prevents cellular use of oxygen
Rationale: Cyanide interferes with cellular respiration by binding to cytochrome c
oxidase, preventing cells from utilizing oxygen despite adequate oxygen delivery.
Carbon monoxide, not cyanide, displaces oxygen from hemoglobin.
A patient with asthma took his albuterol inhaler and feels better. Vitals: P 92,
R 18, BP 130/82, SpO2 93%. You should administer:
A) Oxygen by non-rebreather mask
B) Oxygen by nasal cannula
C) Albuterol by inhaler
D) Albuterol by nebulizer
Answer: B) Oxygen by nasal cannula
Rationale: The patient is improved but has SpO2 93%, indicating continued need
for supplemental oxygen. A nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM is appropriate. The patient
has already taken albuterol, and additional doses require medical control orders.
In a cold environment, you should avoid active rewarming in the field because
it can cause:
A) Rewarming shock
B) Hypothermia
